Mcq Set 2 2dq41

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1. Rearrange the steps in appraisal process. A. Objectives of performance appraisal B. Establish job expectations C. Design in appraisal programme D. Performance Management E. Appraise performance F. Performance interview G. Archive appraisal data H. Use appraisal data for appropriate purposes a. DCHGFABE b. HGFEDBCA c. ABCFGHDE d. ABCDEFGH ANSWER: d. ABCDEFGH

Which of these is an issue while deg an appraisal programme? a. Quality b. What methods of appraisal are to be used c. Quantity d. Cost of effectiveness ANSWER: b. What methods of appraisal are to be used

State true or false Raters can be immediate supervisors, specialists from the HR department, subordinates, peers, committees, clients and self - appraisals or a combination of all. a. True b. False. ANSWER: a. True When appraisals are made by superiors, peers, subordinates and clients then it is called ____. a. 360 degree b. 180 degree c. Self - appraisal d. None of the above ANSWER: a. 360 degree Which company first developed the 360 degree system of appraisal? a. Wipro in 1990 b. Godrej Soaps in 1991 c. General Electric, US in 1992 d. None of the above ANSWER: c. General Electric, US in 1992

Which factors lower the accuracy rate of the rater? a. The rater is aware of personal biases and is willing to take action to minimise their effect b. Performance factors are properly defined c. The rater has documented behaviours to improve the recall d. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously ANSWER: d. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously Which of these is one of the seven criteria for assessing performance?. a. Community service b. Interpersonal c. Need for supervision d. All of the above ANSWER: d. All of the above

Which is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance?

MCQ’S SET 2

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a. Rating Scales b. Critical Incident c. Cost ing d. BARS ANSWER: a. Rating Scales

State true or false In the forced choice method the rater is forced to select statements which are readymade. a. True b. False ANSWER: a. True

10. Which of these is a major weakness of the forced distribution method? a. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution b. Work is reliable c. The error of central tendency d. None of the above ANSWER: a. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution 11. How many components are there in remuneration? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 ANSWER: b. 5

12. Which of the following option is a component of remuneration? a. Fringe Benefits b. Commitment c. External equity d. Motivation

ANSWER: a. Fringe Benefits

Reason: Rest of the options are dimensions of equity

13. What is the alternate name for incentives? a. Gratuity b. Paid holidays c. Payments by result d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Payments by result

14. Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions I. Fringe Benefits ------- A. Stock option II. Job Context ---------- B. Challenging job responsibilities III. Perquisites --------- C. Group Plans IV. Incentives ----------- D. Medical Care a. I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C b. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D c. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B d. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A ANSWER: a. I-D,II-B,III-A,IV-C 15. Which of these is a theory of remuneration? A. Reinforcement

MCQ’S SET 2 B. Labour Market C. Agency

a. A & B b. B & C c. A & C d. A, B & C ANSWER: c. A & C

16. Which importance is emphasised by the reinforcement and expectancy theory? a. Person actually experiencing award b. Seeking to restore equality c. Holding identical jobs in the organisation d. None of the above ANSWER: a. Person actually experiencing award 17. Which are the three types of equities mentioned in the equity theory? a. Internal b. External c. Individual d. All of the above ANSWER: d. All of the above 18. _____ involves the perceived fairness of pay differentials a. External equity b. Individual equity c. Internal equity d. All of the above ANSWER: c. Internal equity 19. Who are the two main stakeholders in an organisation? a. CEO and top management b. Employers and employees c. Executives and owners d. None of the above ANSWER: b. Employers and employees 20. Which of these is a consequence of pay dissatisfaction? a. Strikes b. Grievances c. Turnover d. Job dissatisfaction ANSWER: d. Job dissatisfaction

21. Which of these is an internal factor influencing remuneration? a. Business strategy b. Cost of living c. Legislations d. Society ANSWER: a. Business strategy 22. Rearrange the steps mentioned in a remuneration model. A. Pay survey B. Job evaluation C. Pricing jobs D. Job hierarchy E. Job description a. ABCDE

MCQ’S SET 2 b. DCBEA c. EBDAC d. EACDB ANSWER: c. EBDAC

23. Which of the following is a challenge mentioned in remuneration? a. Employee participation b. Pay secrecy c. Comparable worth d. All of the above ANSWER: d. All of the above

24. Under which conditions does skill - based pay system work well? a. Employee turnover is relatively high b. To set minimum wages for workers whose bargaining position is weak c. To abolish malpractices and abuses in wage and salary payments d. None of the above ANSWER: a. Employee turnover is relatively high 25. Which of the wage concept is higher than fair wage? a. Minimum wage b. Living wage c. Team based pay d. None of the above ANSWER: b. Living wage

26. ___________ is a systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their co-workers and the organisation. a. Job evaluation b. Investiture orientation c. Orientation d. Placement ANSWER: c. Orientation 27. Which type of information is conveyed by orientation? a. Training and education benefit b. Job location c. Job safety requirements d. General information about the daily work routine ANSWER: d. General information about the daily work routine

Reason: All the other options except "d" are topics covered in employee orientation programme.

28. In which country and year was orientation first developed? a. U.S in 1970 b. U.K in 1970 c. India in 1970 d. None of the above ANSWER: a. U.S in 1970

29. Which strategic choices a firm needs to make before deg its orientation programme? a. Formal or informal b. Individual or collective c. Serial or disjunctive d. Investiture or divestiture e. All of the above ANSWER: e. All of the above

30. _________ seeks to ratify the usefulness of the characteristics that the person brings to the new job. a. Divestiture orientation

MCQ’S SET 2 b. Individual or collective c. Investiture orientation d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Investiture orientation

31. Which of these is a stage while conducting formal orientation? a. Employee is given only menial tasks that discourage job interest and company loyalty b. Employee is overloaded with forms to complete c. Specific orientation to the department and the job, typically given by the employee's supervisor d. Employee's mistakes can damage the company ANSWER: c. Specific orientation to the department and the job, typically given by the employee's supervisor Reason: Rest all the other options are problems of orientation

32. Which of the below options are the topics covered in employee orientation programme? a. Training and education benefit b. To employee counsellor c. Relationship to other jobs d. Disciplinary regulations e. All of the above ANSWER: e. All of the above

33. ______ refers to the allocation of people to jobs; it includes initial assignment of new employees, and promotion, transfer, or demotion of present employees. a. Recruitment b. Placement c. Selection d. None of the above ANSWER: b. Placement 34. Which of these is a job in the context of placement problems and employee works? a. Group health b. Early departures c. Independent d. All of the above ANSWER: c. Independent 35. Which of these is mentioned in the orientation checklist? A. Parking B. Equal employment opportunity C. Complete form B a. A & B b. B & C c. A & C d. A, B & C

ANSWER: d. A, B & C

Performance Appraisal - MCQs with answers - Part 3 36. Which of these is an advantage of the critical incidents methods while performing performance appraisal? a. Minimise inventory costs

MCQ’S SET 2 b. Negative incidents are generally more noticeable than positive ones c. Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour

37. What is the full form of "BARS"?

a. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales b. Baseline ing and Reporting System c. Budgeting ing and Reporting System d. None of the above ANSWER: a. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales

38. What do behaviourally anchored scales represent?

a. The scales are anchored by descriptions of actual job behaviour b. Superiors would feel comfortable to give c. A range of descriptive statements of behaviour varying from the least to the most effective d. None of the above ANSWER: c. A range of descriptive statements of behaviour varying from the least to the most effective

39. Who conducts the field review method?

a. Peers b. Supervisor c. Subordinates d. Someone from corporate office or the HR department ANSWER: d. Someone from corporate office or the HR department

40. Which of these is mentioned in a typical confidential report? A. Leadership B. Ability to reason C. Integrity

a. A & B b. A & C c. A, B & C d. B & C ANSWER: c. A, B & C

41. Which performance appraisal methods consumes a lot of time? a. Essay method b. Rating Scales c. Critical incident d. Tests And Observation ANSWER: a. Essay method

42. On what parameter does the cost ing method measures performance? a. Based on merit b. Monetary returns the employee pitches to his/ her organisation c. Comparing workers performance with his colleagues d. Based on confidential report of the employee ANSWER: b. Monetary returns the employee pitches to his/ her organisation

MCQ’S SET 2 43. Who was the first person to give the concept of Management by Objectives? a. Edwards Deming b. D.W. Cheetham c. Peter F. Drucker d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Peter F. Drucker

44. Rearrange the steps involved in the management by objective process. A. Setting the performance standard for the subordinates B. Establishing new goals and new strategies C. The actual level of goal attainment D. Establish the goals a. ABCD b. DCBA c. BCDA d. DACB ANSWER: d. DACB

45. The focuses of psychological appraisals are on _____. a. Future potential b. Actual performance c. Past performance d. None of the above ANSWER: a. Future potential

46. Which method is used for evaluating the performance of executives or supervisory positions? a. Psychological Appraisals b. Assessment Centres c. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales d. 360 degree ANSWER: b. Assessment Centres

47. In which country was the assessment centre first build?

a. US and UK b. India c. China d. Japan ANSWER: a. US and UK 48. What does the 360 degree assess? a. Communication Skills b. Behavioural Aspect c. Team - building skills d. Soft skills ANSWER: d. Soft skills 49. Which of these options are the activities that constitute the core of performance management? a. Performance interview b. Archiving performance data c. Use of appraisal data d. All of the above ANSWER: d. All of the above 50. Which is the biggest challenge faced while conducting performance appraisal?

MCQ’S SET 2 a. Evaluating performance of self - managed teams b. Presence of a formal appeal process c. Appraisals based on traits are to be avoided d. None of the above ANSWER: a. Evaluating performance of self – managed teams

Reason: Rest of the options are the legal issues involved while conducting performance appraisal

51. What is the main objective of job evaluation? a. Job is rated before the employee is appointed to occupy b. It is not compulsory c. To define satisfactory wage and salary differentials d. None of the above ANSWER: c. To define satisfactory wage and salary differentials

52. Which of these options is one of the non - analytical methods of job evaluation? a. Job - grading method b. Point ranking method c. Factor comparison method d. None of the above ANSWER: a. Job - grading method

Reason: Rest of the options are of analytical methods of job evaluation

53. Which of these is an alternate to job evaluation? a. Wage survey b. Employee classification c. Decision Bank Method d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Decision Bank Method

Training & Development - MCQs with answers

54. __________ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees grow. a. Training b. Development c. Education d. All of the above ANSWER: b. Development

55. How does training and development offer competitive advantage to an organisation? a. Removing performance decencies b. Deficiency is caused by a lack of ability c. Individuals have the aptitude and motivation to learn d. None of the above ANSWER: a. Removing performance decencies

56. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training? a. Improves morale b. Helps people identify with organisational goals c. Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co - ordination d. None of the above

MCQ’S SET 2 ANSWER: b. Helps people identify with organisational goals

Reason: Rest of the options are benefits in personnel and HR

57. Choose which of the following is a benefit to the individual while receiving training? a. Creates an appropriate climate for growth, communication b. Aids in increasing productivity and/ or quality of work c. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer 58. Which of this is a step in training process? a. KSA deficiency b. Provide proper c. Obstacles in the system d. Use of evaluation models ANSWER: d. Use of evaluation models

59. Which of the following is a method used in group or organisational training needs assessment? a. Consideration of current and projected changes b. Rating scales c. Interviews d. Questionnaires ANSWER: a. Consideration of current and projected changes Reason: rest all the other options are individual training needs assessment

60. _________ seeks to examine the goals of the organisation and the trends that are likely to affect these goals. a. Organisational b. Organisational analysis c. Person analysis d. Key skill abilities analysis ANSWER: b. Organisational analysis 61. Which of these is the benefit of needs assessment? a. Assessment makes training department more able b. Higher training costs c. Loss of business d. Increased overtime working ANSWER: a. Assessment makes training department more able

Reason: Rest all the options are consequence of absence of training needs assessment

62. Rearrange the steps in training programme. A. What should be the level of training B. What principles of learning C. Who are the trainees? D. What methods and techniques? E. Where to conduct the programme? F. Who are the trainers? a. ABCDEF b. DECAFB c. CADFBE d. CFDABE ANSWER: d. CFDABE

63. Which of these is an off - the - job training method?

MCQ’S SET 2 a. Television b. Job rotation c. Orientation training d. Coaching ANSWER: a. Television

Reason: Rest all other options are on - the job training method.

64. State true or false.

Vestibule training utilises equipment which closely resemble the actual ones used on the job. a. True b. False ANSWER: a. True

65. Match the following techniques of training with their correct description.

1. Tag Teams --------- A. Games to get team know each other 2. Outward - bound training ----- B. Games to test ability to plan ahead 3. Mirroring ------ C. Training with an external perspective 4. Strategic planners ----- D. Adventure sports for teams 5. Ice breakers ----- E. one role played alternately by two participants a. 1-E,2-D,3-C,4-B,5-A b. 1-A,2-D,3-E,4-C,5-B c. 1-D,2-A,3-C,4-E,5-B d. 1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A,5-E ANSWER: a. 1-E,2-D,3-C,4-B,5-A

66. Which of the following is a learning principle? a. Recognition of individual differences b. Schedules of learning c. Transfer of learning d. All of the above ANSWER: d. All of the above

67. Which of the following is a technique of evaluation? a. Longitudinal or time - series analysis b. Transfer validity c. Inter - organisational validity d. None of the above ANSWER: a. Longitudinal or time - series analysis

68. Which of these is a hindrance to effective training? a. Career planning workshop b. Aggregate spending on training is inadequate c. Mentoring d. Career counselling ANSWER: b. Aggregate spending on training is inadequate

Motivating the employees - MCQs with answers 69. Rearrange the six steps of motivation logically. A. Engages in goal - directed behaviour B. Reassess needs deficiencies C. Performs D. Identifies needs E. Searches for ways to satisfy the needs F. Receives either rewards or punishment

MCQ’S SET 2 a. DFCAEB b. BCDEAF c. DEACFB d. ABCDEF ANSWER: c. DEACFB

Training and development programmes

70. The term human resource development reflects the fact that it is no longer appropriate in modern organisations to focus on just the development of which group? a) workers b) employees c) consultants d) part timers 71. According to your text-book, which of the following is most important for HRD? a) to be clearly related to the organisation’s objectives b) to be clearly related to the expertise in the department c) to be flexible to be able to respond to sudden crisis d) to operate as an extension of the HRM department

72. What may be particularly necessary as part of the training process where people are working in another country? a) e-learning b) discovery learning c) cross-cultural training d) activist learning

73. What is the term used to describe the process of helping a new employee to settle quickly into their job so they become efficient and productive workers? a) action learning b) discovery learning c) sitting by Nellie d) induction 74. Which of the following is not a stage in the systematic training cycle? a) evaluation b) assessing training needs c) planning the training d) job instruction on a one to one basis

75. Which of the following organisations were established in 2001 to cover learning and skills development in a wide range of areas? a) Training and Enterprise Councils b) Local Enterprise Councils c) Learning and Skills Council d) The Qualifications and Curriculum Authority 76. Which of the following organisations are responsible for ‘the enhancement and improvement of the performance of people involved in development, management, health and safety and representation of people in the workplace’? a) The Qualifications and Curriculum Authority b) The Employment National Training Organisation c) Training and enterprise councils d) Investors in People UK 77. Which of the following organisations aims at improving the quality of training and development practices by setting national standards and by linking these to the achievement of business goals?

MCQ’S SET 2 a) b) c) d)

Investors in People UK Training and enterprise councils The Employment National Training Organisation The Qualifications and Curriculum Authority

78. Which national training schemes exist at advanced and foundation level? a) New deal b) NVQs c) GNVQs d) Modern apprenticeships

79. Which of the following is the best definition of a learning organisation? a) An organisation which facilitates the learning of all its and continuously transforms itself. b) An organisation in which the managers are encouraged to develop c) An organisation which facilitates the learning of all its in order to preserve the status quo d) An organisation which does a lot of training on an ad hoc basis 80. Which of the following is not one of the four principles that underpin the Investors in People standard? a) evaluating b) appraising c) commitment d) action

81. Which of the following is the best term to describe people who guide and suggest suitable learning experiences for their proteges? a) human resource directors b) line managers c) coaches d) mentors 82. Which level of NVQ does the following specification describe? This level recognises competence in the performance of complex, technical and professional work activities performed in a variety of settings. There is likely to be a substantial degree of personal autonomy and responsibility, and it is usually necessary to demonstrate competence in allocating resources and in management or supervision. a) level 2 b) level 3 c) level 4 d) level 5 83. Which of the following is not a current version of New Deal? a) New Deal 25 plus b) New Deal 50 plus c) New Deal 60 plus d) New Deal for lone parents

84. Which of the following is true of modern apprenticeships? a) employers had no involvement in developing the national standards b) employers were involved in developing national standards so they are geared to each industry sector’s requirements c) different standards are set to meet local needs without any regard to national standards d) modern apprentice do not have to complete NVQs or any other qualifications while working

85. Which of the following best describes a Level 1 NVQ?

MCQ’S SET 2 a)

b) c) d)

Competence is shown in applying fundamental principles and complex techniques across a wide range of s situations which may often be unpredictable Competence is shown in performing complex, technical and professional activities in a wide range of settings Competence is shown in a wide range of work activities that are likely to be routine and predictable There is no need for any competence to be demonstrated since knowledge is all that is tested

86. When was the national standard for Investors in People first developed? a) 1960s b) 1970s c) 1980s d) 1990s

87. Which national body now has responsibility for national learning targets? a) IiP UK b) The Learning and Skills Council c) NACETT d) Local Learning Skills Councils

88. Which of the following government-led training incentives was involved in the past in imposing a levy on employers? a) The Industrial Training Boards b) The Investors in People initiative c) TECs d) LECs 89. Which of the following is not an objective of the Employment National Training Organisation? a) To represent the employment area b) To develop national, sectoral and local partnerships on wider educational and training issues c) To promote employer investment in people as central to competitive business advantage d) To set national targets for training and development

90. ___________ is the name given to a philosophy and set of methods and techniques that stressed the scientific study and organisation of work at the operational level. a. Scientific Management b. Human Relations Model c. Two factor theory d. Achievement motivation theory ANSWER: a. Scientific Management 91. Rearrange the steps of Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory. A. Self - Actualisation Needs B. Physiological needs C. Belongingness and love needs D. Self - esteem needs E. Safety needs a. ABCDE b. ADCBE c. DCBEA d. ADCEB ANSWER: d. ADCEB

92. 4. Which of the following is a content theory? a. Expectancy theory b. ERG Theory c. Equity theory d. None of the above ANSWER: b. ERG Theory 93. State true or false

MCQ’S SET 2 Needs reflect either physiological or psychological deficiencies. a. True b. False ANSWER: a. True

94. Who propounded the Need's Theory a. Frederick Herzberg b. Alderfer c. Abraham Harold Maslow d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Abraham Harold Maslow

95. The two factor theory is based on which factors? a. Hygiene and behavioural b. Safety and self - esteem c. Self - actualisation and status quotient d. None of the above ANSWER: a. Hygiene and behavioural

96. What does "E", "R" and "G" stand for in the ERG theory? a. Export, Risk and Guarantee b. Exponential, Reliability and Growth c. Existence, Relatedness and Growth d. None of the above ANSWER: c. Existence, Relatedness and Growth

97. Which of the following is a need that motivates human behaviour as per the achievement motivation theory? a. Power b. Affiliation c. Achievement d. All of the above ANSWER: d. All of the above 98. Which of the following is a process theory? a. Achievement Motivation theory b. Performance - satisfaction model c. ERG theory d. Two factor theory ANSWER: b. Performance - satisfaction model

99. What are the alternate names used for the expectancy model? a. Instrumentality theory b. Path - goal theory c. Valence - instrumentality - expectancy theory d. All of the above ANSWER: d. All of the above

100. State true or false First level and second level outcomes, expectancy, valence and instrumentalists are the four important variables of the achievement motivation theory. a. True b. False ANSWER: b. False Reason: First level and second level outcomes, expectancy, valence and instrumentalists are the four important variables of the Expectancy Model.

MCQ’S SET 2 101. Which of the following option, is an important term used in the theory? a. Inputs b. Promotion c. Working condition d. Responsibility ANSWER: a. Inputs Reason: Rest all the other options are examples of outcomes in an organisation.

102. _________ and ___________ came out with a comprehensive theory of motivation called the performance - satisfaction model. a. Festinger and Heider b. Jacques and Patchen c. Porter and Lawler d. Weick and Adams ANSWER: c. Porter and Lawler 103. Which of the following options is a factor which the equity theory is not clear about? a. How does a person choose the comparison other? b. Carefully explaining to the employees what their roles are c. Making sure the rewards dispersed are valued by the employees d. None of the above ANSWER: a. How does a person choose the comparison other? 104. The following is (are) the benefit(s) of training. (A) Increased productivity (B) Reduced accidents (C) Reduced supervision (D) All of the above (Ans: D)

105. The following training aims to provide broad training to enable the trainee to take up a wide variety of tasks within his field of specialisation (A) Demonstration (B) On-the-job training (C) Apprenticeship (D) All of the above (Ans: C) 106. Demonstration type of training method is used to train (A) Workers (B) Supervision (C) Managers (D) All of the above (Ans: A) 107. The following is not a part of lower level management (A) Worker (B) Foreman (C) Supervisor (D) Inspector (Ans: A)

108. A homogenous group of ____ men from the plant constitutes an ideal conference group (A) 8-10 (B) 12-15 (C) 18-20 (D) 22-25 (Ans: B)

MCQ’S SET 2 109. The following method is used to give to trainees the important information in permanent form for immediate of future use (A) Lecture methods (B) Conference (C) Written instructional method (D) Training within the industry (TWI) (Ans: C) 110. Training within the industry (TWI) scheme imparts training in (A) Job instructions (B) Job rotation (C) Job method (D) All of the above (Ans: D) 111. The following is not a on the job training method (A) Understudies (B) Job rotation (C) Management by objectives (MBO) (D) Case study method (Ans: D) 112. The following is vertical expansion of the job (A) Job rotation (B) Job enrichment (C) Management by objectives (MBO) (D) All of the above (Ans: B)

113. _____ is widely used for human relations and leadership training (A) Business games (B) Role playing (C) Case study method (D) Job rotation (Ans: B)

114. Personnel management of an organisation specifically deals with human resources in respect of (A) Their procurement (B) Develop their skills, knowledge and attitude (C) Their motivation towards the attainment of organisational objectives (D) All of the above (Ans: D) 115. Personnel management is a (A) Point of view (B) Technique of thinking (C) Philosophy of management (D) All of the above (Ans: D)

116. Which of the following is not true about training? It is a short-duration exercise. It is technical in nature. It is primarily for managers and executives. It is concerned with specific job skills.

MCQ’S SET 2 117. In which type of analysis are corporate goals and plans compared with the existing manpower inventory to determine the training needs? Organization analysis Operation analysis Individual analysis None of the above 118. Training concentrates on coaching the of an organization how to perform effectively in their current jobs expansion of the knowledge and skills of the of an organization preparing the employees to take on new responsibilities. none of the above. 119. The process of enhancing the technical skills of workers in a short period is called training development education none of the above 120. E-learning is all about computers and computing being technology-driven electronics experience

121. The planned use of networked information and communications technology for the delivery of training is called e-learning role playing case study programmed learning 122. Which one of the following is a source of assessing training needs? performance evaluation attitude survey advisory all of the above 123. Laboratory training is also known by the name sensitivity training job instruction training apprenticeship training none of the above

124. _______ method creates a situation that is as far as possible a replica of the real situation for imparting training. The programmed learning The Simulation The case study The lecture 125. A team of learners working online in a real-time mode using the Internet is known as individualized self-paced e-learning online individualized self-paced e-learning offline group-based e-learning synchronously group-based e-learning asynchronously 126. Training need analysis takes place during which phase of the training process? deciding what to teach deciding how to maximize participant learning choosing appropriate instructional methods

MCQ’S SET 2 determining whether training programmes are effective 127. Which one of the following is an outcome of 'organizing' function of management? Select correct option: 1. Organization’s strategy 2. Motivation & commitment 3. Organization’s structure 4. Performance measurement 128. Which of the following is a stated outcome of 'Job Analysis'? Select correct option: 1. Job description 2. Job specification 3. Job evaluation 4. All of the given options

129. Which of the following is MOST important to manage workforce diversity? Select correct option: 1. Lower cohesiveness 2. group 3. Top-level commitment 4. Resistance to change

130. Training to the raters of performance appraisal is an important responsibility of: Select correct option: 1. Top management 2. HR department 3. Line managers 4. Production department 131. Graphic rating scales are subjected to all of the following problems, EXCEPT: Select correct option: 1. Halo effects 2. Complexity 3. Central tendency 4. Leniency

132. Which of the following is responsible for implementing the developed strategies? Select correct option: 1. Human resource 2. Physical resource 3. Rules & policies 4. Installed equipment

133. In which of the following area organizations are legally bound to maintain consistency in HR policies? Select correct option: 1. Compensation system 2. Training & development 3. Safety measures 4. None of the given options

134. How can companies provide career counseling, development advice, and therapy for employees seeking to grow in their careers? Select correct option: 1. Provide career coaches 2. Encourage role reversal 3. Establish a corporate campus

MCQ’S SET 2 4. Offer online career centers

135. Which ONE of the following is not a part of Human Resource Development? Select correct option: 1. Training 2. Education 3. Development 4. Rewards

136. What type of screening mode is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims? Select correct option: 1. Physical examinations 2. Personality tests 3. Polygraph tests 4. Substance abuse screening 137. Which of the following is part of the organization’s role in an employee’s career development? Select correct option: 1. Communicating the mission, policies, and procedures 2. Providing timely performance 3. Participating in career development discussions 4. Seeking out career information 138. Which of the following term is said to be a part of Organizational Structure? Select correct option: 1. Goal attainment 2. Hierarchy level 3. Performance standards 4. ing staff

139. “On going process of evaluating & managing both the behavior & outcomes in the workplace” is known as; Select correct option: 1. Training & development 2. Performance appraisal 3. Compensation management 4. Job analysis 140. Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance? Select correct option: 1. Alternation ranking 2. Graphic rating scale 3. Management By Objective 4. Paired comparison

141. HRIS helps managers to perform _______________________ more effectively & systematically. Select correct option: 1. Management functions 2. Controlling functions 3. Planning functions 4. HR functions

142. Examples of training at US Airways, Starbucks, Boston Pizza and Seattle City Light discussed in Chapter One demonstrate the role of training in: A. reducing turnover. B. meeting safety requirements. C. raising morale. D. gaining a competitive advantage.

MCQ’S SET 2 143. Continuous learning: A. refers to a seamless training that doesn`t allow learners to break away from the training session. B. requires employees to understand the entire work system including the relationships among their jobs, their work units, and the company. C. uses an instructional design process to ensure training effectiveness. D. refers only to off-site training. 144. Traditionally, the category of training emphasized by the most companies is: A. basic and advanced skills. B. orientation. C. safety. D. legally-mandated.

145. Which of the following is not one of the job-related competencies critical for successful job performance? A. innovation B. knowledge C. skills D. behaviors

146. _____ is linked to strategic goals and objectives and benchmarks its training programs against those of other companies. A. Total Quality Management training B. Continuous learning C. High-leverage training D. Six Sigma training 147. In the training design process, selection of training methods is the _____ step. A. first B. third C. final D. next to final 148. Person and task analysis are part of which step of the training design process? A. ensuring transfer of training B. developing an evaluation plan C. conducting needs assessment D. monitoring and evaluating the program

149. At what point in the training design process should selection of training methods occur? Directly following: A. development of an evaluation plan. B. needs assessment. C. ensuring transfer of training. D. development of learning objectives. 150. The acronym ADDIE is most closely associated with: A. high-leverage training. B. ISD. C. intellectual capital. D. Six Sigma.

151. Which of the following is not a force discussed by Noe as influencing the workplace and training? A. new laws regulating allocation of training funds in the US B. economic cycles C. new technology D. high-performance work systems

152. The process of moving jobs from the United States to other locations in the world is called:

MCQ’S SET 2 A. outsourcing. B. globalization. C. offshoring. D. virtual teams.

153. Noe argues that all but which of the following are reasons offshoring is occurring. A. U.S. visa laws allow foreign worker in the U.S. for seven years B. the U.S. graduates fewer U.S. born engineers than China and Japan C. more talented employees may be available outside the U.S. D. some countries provide substantial incentives for workers to work in the U.S. 154. All of the following except _____ capital are examples of intangible assets. A. creative B. intellectual C. customer D. social

155. According to a survey of 50,000 employees, _____ percent have high levels of engagement. A. 11 B. 31 C. 51 D. 71

156. _____ is not one of the arguments for why greater diversity can help a company gain a competitive advantage. A. Creativity B. Flexibility C. Lower training costs D. Problem solving 157. _____ refers to attracting, retaining, developing, and motivating highly skilled employees and managers. A. Diversity management B. Social capital C. Human resource management D. Talent management 158. Companies report the most important talent management challenge they face is: A. identifying and training employees with managerial talent. B. getting more women and minorities into the company. C. developing programs to retain older workers. D. obtaining enough new workers with required skills.

159. _____ involve(s) measuring progress with data, deg methods and processes to meet internal and external customers and promoting cooperation with vendors, suppliers and customers. A. ISO 9000 B. TQM C. Quality Circles D. ISO 100-15

160. Which of the following categories in the Malcolm Baldrige Award is most closely related to training and development? A. strategic planning B. measurement, analysis and knowledge management C. work force focus D. customer and market focus 161. _____ is a set of standards regarding how to establish quality standards and how to document work processes. A. Six Sigma B. TQM C. The Malcolm Baldrige award D. ISO 9000 162. Trainers with titles including Champions, Black Belts and Green Belts are associated with:

MCQ’S SET 2 A. Six Sigma. B. ISO 9000. C. Crosby/Deming Quality. D. ISO 10015.

163. The Bureau of Labor Statistics estimates that _____ percent of the workforce consists of alternative work arrangements such as independent contractors. A. 5 B. 11 C. 19 D. 25 164. _____ are teams separated by time, culture, organizational boundaries and that rely on technology. A. Quality circles B. High performance work teams C. Virtual teams D. Six Sigma teams 165. According to the 2008 ASTD State of the Industry Report, _____ is spent of training per employee. A. $250 B. $600 C. $1100 D. $1900

166. According to the 2008 ASTD State of the Industry Report, _____ is the percentage of dollars spent on training and development as a percentage of payroll. A. 12 B. 8 C. 6 D. 2 167. According to the 2004 ASTD Competency Model, which of the following is not one of the four roles of a training professional? A. change agent B. project manager C. business partner D. professional specialist