General Geology Test Questions 5r1n1t
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GENERAL GEOLOGY - GEOL 1113 EXAM I WITH ANSWERS - Spring 2002 1. Which of the following is not among the 8 most abundant elements on Earth? a) hydrogen, b) potassium, c) sodium, d) iron, e) aluminum. 2. The most abundant element on Earth is a) silicon, b) water, c) aluminum, d) iron, e) oxygen. 3. Any substance where the atoms are arranged in a regular geometric pattern is a) a naturally occurring solid, b) a mineral, c) a substance formed through inorganic processes, d) a crystalline substance, e) a compound. 4. All matter in the Universe is composed of a) molecules, b) atoms, c) crystals, d) minerals, e) substances. 5. Which of the following is not a basic component of an atom? a) electron, b) neutron, c) proton, d) positron. 6. Which of the following is a part of the definition of a mineral? a) a liquid that may become solid, b) man-made, c) definite chemical composition, d) unorganized structure, e) OOPS! All of these are parts of the definition of a mineral. 7. The silica tetrahedron is composed of a) 1 silicon and 4 aluminum atoms, b) 1 silicon and 4 oxygen atoms, c) silicon chips, d) silicon only, e) silicon, iron and aluminum atoms. 8. The physical characteristic of some minerals whereby they fracture along preferred planes related to the crystalline structure of the mineral is known as a) cleavage, b) fracture, c) breakage, d) planarity, e) all of these. 9. Which of the following is a physical property of minerals? a) breakage, b) tint and hue, c) luster, d) roughness, e) roundness. 10. An example of a sheet silicate mineral is a) olivine, b) quartz, c) augite, d) hornblende, e) none of these. 11. In the single-chain silicates, the silica tetrahedra are bound to each other at a) two corners, b) three corners, c) four corners, d) one corner, e) not bounded to each other.
12. The color of a powdered mineral is a) the same as the color of the mineral specimen, b) its streak, c) determined by the types of impurities in the mineral, d) is not a reliable physical property, e) none of these. 13. Which of the following minerals are arranged in order of increasing hardness? a) talc, apatite, corundum, diamond, b) topaz, quartz, fluorite, corundum, c) talc, quartz, calcite, diamond, d) quartz, topaz, diamond, fluorite, e) fluorite, calcite, gypsum, talc. 14. What type of silicate is Muscovite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 15. What type of silicate is Biotite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 16. What type of silicate is Augite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 17. What type of silicate is Olivine? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 18. What type of silicate is Quartz? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 19. What type of silicate is Hornblende? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 20. What type of silicate is Feldspar? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 21. How do the crystal structures of micas and feldspars differ from each other? a) feldspars are framework silicates, micas are double chain silicates, b) feldspars are double chain silicates, micas are sheet silicates, c) micas and feldspars have the same crystalline structure, d) feldspars are single chain silicates, micas are double chain silicates, e) micas are sheet silicates, feldspars are framework silicates. 22. Cubic zirconia are synthetic stones that are manufactured as inexpensive substitutes for diamonds in jewelry. Are cubic zirconia minerals? a) yes, b) no, c) maybe, d) it depends on your point of view, e) none of these. 23. Hypsometry is a) the average elevation of Earth, b) the highest elevation on Earth, c) the lowest elevation on Earth, d) the percent area at different elevations on Earth, e) none of these.
24. Which of the following is not a terrestrial planet? a) Earth, b) Mars, c) Venus, d), the Moon, e) all of these are considered terrestrial planets. 25. Earth’s atmosphere is different from other planets because a) it contains abundant nitrogen, b) it contains abundant oxygen, c) it contains only small amounts of carbon dioxide, d) it contains abundant water vapor, e) all of these. 26. The atmospheres of Venus and Mars contain mostly a) oxygen, b) methane, c) hydrogen sulfide, d) carbon dioxide, e) argon. 27. The planet that is most dense is a) Mars, b) Earth, c) Venus, d) the Moon, e) Mercury. 28. Is life abundant in the Universe? a) yes, b) no, c) no one can say, d) it is highly likely, e) it is highly unlikely. 29. True or False: The terrestrial planet with the smallest diameter also has the smallest mass. a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) it depends on how you define "mass", e) it depends on how you define "diameter". 30. The hypsometry of Earth is a) bimodal, b) unique among the terrestrial planets, c) due to the presence of continents and ocean basins, d) different than the other terrestrial planets, e) all of these. 31. The hypsometry of Earth resulted from a) a collision with an asteroid, b) random chance, c) the gravitational attraction of the Sun, d) geologic processes of differentiation, e) all of these. 32. Rocks of the continents are enriched in the elements a) silicon and iron, b) iron and magnesium, c) silicon and aluminum, d) magnesium and aluminum, e) magnesium and silicon. 33. Rocks of the ocean basins are enriched in the elements a) silicon and iron, b) iron and magnesium, c) silicon and aluminum, d) magnesium and aluminum, e) magnesium and silicon. 34. Geologic processes that resulted in the formation of continents and ocean basins a) were only active during Earth’s early history, b) are still active today, c) cannot be observed by scientists, d) have occurred on the other terrestrial planets, e) all of these. 35. "Sima" is a general term used to refer to a) rocks of the ocean basins, b) rocks of the continents, c) all rocks that compose Earth’s crust, d) rocks that compose the crust of terrestrial planets, e) none of these. 36. "Sial" is a) found only on Earth, b) found in the crust of all other terrestrial planets, c) found only in the ocean basins of Earth, d) found only in rocks of the Moon, e) none of these.
37. The largest terrestrial planet is a) Mercury, b) Venus, c) Earth, d) Mars, e) Jupiter. 38. The concentration of carbon dioxide in Earth’s atmosphere is a) 97%, b) 78%, c) 20%, d) 3%, e) 0.035%. 39. The planet with the highest surface temperature is a) Venus, b) Earth, c) Mars, d) the Moon, e) Mercury. 40. Since 1960, how many of the nine planets of our solar system have been visited by space probes? a) two, b) four, c) six, d) eight, e) nine.
EXAM II WITH ANSWERS - SPRING 2002 1. Which of the following parameters influences the viscosity of magma? a) temperature of the magma, b) oxygen content of the magma, c) depth of the magma beneath Earth’s surface, d) quantity of minerals in the magma, e) all of these affect the viscosity of magma. 2. You discover a rock with aphanitic texture containing amphibole, biotite, and sodium feldspar. This is a) gabbro, b) granite, c) basalt, d) andesite, e) diorite. 3. The rock in #2 above is a) volcanic, b) plutonic, c) porphyritic, d) highly weathered, e) none of these. 4. The magma giving rise to the rock in #2 had a temperature of about a) 1200oC, b) 1000oC, c) 800oC, d) 451oF, e) none of these. 5. The viscosity of magma yielding the rock in #2 is a) relatively low, b) somewhat intermediate, c) relatively high, d) non-existent, e) none of these. 6. The Continuous Series of Bowen’s Reaction Series is composed of minerals a) with different chemical compositions but the same mineral structures, b) with different chemical compositions and different mineral structures, c) with similar chemical compositions and different mineral structures, d) with similar chemical compositions and similar mineral structures, e) none of these. 7. Bowen’s Reaction Series shows the relations between a) temperature, viscosity, and mineral composition, b) temperature, chemical composition, and mineral structure, c) viscosity, temperature, silica content, and volatile content, d) temperature, pressure, and viscosity, e) none of these. 8. The two important criteria used for igneous rock classification are a) temperature and texture, b) mineral composition and temperature, c) mineral composition and texture, d) temperature and viscosity, e) Bowen’s Reaction Series and texture.
9. Basalt and andesite a) have the same minerals, b) formed from magma with the same temperature, c) formed from magma with the same viscosity, d) formed from magma with the same silica content, e) none of these. 10. An igneous rock with minerals that can be seen with the unaided eye exhibits a) porphyritic texture, b) aphanitic texture, c) pyroclastic texture, d) phaneritic texture, e) visible texture. 11. Root wedging a) is a rare weathering phenomenon, b) occurs only in rain forests, c) occurs whenever plants germinate in rocks, d) is a theoretical weathering phenomenon, e) has never been observed in nature. 12. Root wedging is common in a) polar climates, b) temperate climates, c) tropical climates, d) any climate, e) none of these. 13. True or False: Granite headstones typically weather more rapidly than limestone headstones. a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) it depends how you look at it, e) I should’ve been in class on Friday. 14. True or False: Our beloved Senior Walk is being mechanically weathered by skateboarders and in-line skaters. a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) it depends how you look at it, e) SLACKERS! 15. Which of the following is a form of mechanical weathering? a) dissolution, b) chemical weathering, c) oxidation, d) hydrolysis, e) none of these is a form of mechanical weathering. 16. Caves form as a result of a) mechanical weathering of limestone, b) oxidation of limestone, c) dissolution of limestone, d) hydrolysis of limestone, e) frost wedging in limestone. 17. Plutonic igneous rocks always have a) olivine, calcium feldspar, pyroxene, b) amphibole, sodium feldspar, biotite, c) quartz, muscovite, potassium feldspar, d) phaneritic texture, e) none of these. 18. Explosive volcanoes always have a) relatively low silica magmas, b) relatively low volatile contents, c) relatively high temperature magmas, d) relatively low viscosity magmas, e) none of these. 19. Hawaiian volcanic eruptions are not too dangerous because a) the magma viscosity is high, b) the silica content of the magma is low, c) the temperature of the magma is low, d) the gas content of the magma is low, e) all of these. Use your knowledge of Bowen’s Reaction Series and igneous rock classification to complete the table below: SILICA CONTENT
MINERAL COMPOSITION
PHANERITIC TEXTURE
APHANITIC TEXTURE
HIGH
20
21
22
INTERMEDIATE
23
24
25
LOW
26
27
28
20. a) gabbro, basalt, granite, b) sodium feldspar, pyroxene, muscovite, c) muscovite, quartz, potassium feldspar, d) olivine, pyroxene, calcium feldspar, e) none of these. 21. a) gabbro, b) diorite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) andesite. 22. a) rhyolite, b) gabbro, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite. 23. a) olivine, calcium feldspar, pyroxene, b) calcium feldspar, sodium feldspar, potassium feldspar, c) quartz, granite, muscovite, d) pyroxene, amphibole, biotite, e) hornblende, biotite, sodium feldspar. 24. a) andesite, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite. 25. a) andesite, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite. 26. a) quartz, biotite, olivine, b) olivine, quartz, sodium feldspar, c) quartz, muscovite, potassium feldspar, d) quartz, pyroxene, sodium feldspar, e) none of these. 27. a) gabbro, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite. 28. a) gabbro, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite. Answer the questions below regarding Bowen’s Reaction Series. 29. The first mineral to form in the Discontinuous Series: a) calcium feldspar, b) biotite, c) hornblende, d) olivine, e) quartz. 30. A high-temperature framework silicate: a) calcium feldspar, b) biotite, c) hornblende, d) olivine, e) quartz. 31. A single chain silicate: a) olivine, b) amphibole, c) pyroxene, d) biotite, e) hornblende. 32. An intermediate temperature framework silicate: a) calcium feldspar, b) potassium feldspar, c) biotite, d) muscovite, e) none of these. 33. The double chain silicate: a) quartz, b) muscovite, c) biotite, d) hornblende, e) sodium feldspar.
34. A low temperature sheet silicate: a) biotite, b) muscovite, c) quartz, d) calcium feldspar, e) olivine. 35. An intermediate temperature sheet silicate: a) biotite, b) muscovite, c) quartz, d) calcium feldspar, e) olivine. 36. A low temperature framework silicate: a) hornblende, b) potassium feldspar, c) augite, d) olivine, e) none of these. 37. The last mineral to form in Bowen’s Reaction Series: a) hornblende, b) quartz, c) augite, d) olivine, e) none of these. 38. Weathering processes a) only affect igneous rocks, b) only affect sedimentary rocks, c) affect all rocks at Earth’s surface, d) do not adversely affect rocks, e) cannot be observed directly at Earth’s surface. 39. Rates of rock weathering are fastest a) in polar climates, b) in temperate climates, c) in tropical climates, d) in arid climates, e) none of these. 40. A rock with aphanitic texture and low temperature minerals is a) gabbro, b) rhyolite, c) andesite, d) diorite, e) basalt.
EXAM III WITH ANSWERS - Spring 2002 "It is our attitude at the beginning of a difficult undertaking which more than anything else, will determine its outcome"-- William James 1. Which of the following is a class of rocks? a) sedimentary rocks, b) igneous rocks, c) metamorphic rocks, d) all of these are classes of rocks. 2. The process whereby rocks are changed to sediment is called a) lithification, b) deposition, c) weathering, d) compaction, e) solidification. 3. A sedimentary rock composed of rounded particles of gravel is a) breccia, b) sandstone, c) particle stone, d) gravelstone, e) conglomerate. 4. A sedimentary rock composed of angular particles of sand is called a) sandstone, b) conglomerate, c) breccia, d) siltsone, e) soapstone. 5. Sedimentary particles with a size range larger than 256mm a) pebbles, b) silt, c) sand, d) boulders, e) cobbles. 6. A layer in which the grain size becomes smaller vertically through the layer is called a) foliated, b) graded bedding, c) cross-bedded, d) is not observed in nature, e) none of these.
7. The principal agents of metamorphism are a) heat and chemical composition, b) texture and composition, c) pressure and texture, d) heat and pressure, e) volcanoes and earthquakes. 8. Mud cracks preserved in sedimentary rocks a) are indicative of arid environments characterized by occasional rain, b) occur only in rain forests, c) occur whenever plants germinate in rocks, d) have never been observed in nature. 9. Sedimentary rocks provide clues about a) Earth surface conditions at the time the sediment formed, b) temperate climates, c) tropical climates, d) polar climates, e) all of these. 10.Cross-bedding observed in river sand can be used a) to determine the direction the water was flowing, b) to determine the speed of the river, c) determine the height of the waves in the river, d) to determine the temperature at the time the ripples formed, e) none of these. 11. As one goes deeper beneath Earth’s surface, a) pressure increases, b) temperature increases, c) rocks become more dense, d) the mechanical behavior of rocks changes, e) all of these. 12. A sedimentary rock composed of clay-sized particles is called: a) siltstone, b) shale, c) breccia, d) diatomaceous earth, e) none of these. 13. Chemical sedimentary rocks are a) formed from weathered remains of other rocks, b) never found at Earth’s surface, c) precipitated from various solutions, d) formed only in arid environments, e) formed only in marine environments. 14. On the diagram at left, what are the pressure and temperature conditions in the section labeled 15? a) low pressure, low temperature, b) high pressure, high temperature, c) low pressure, high temperature, d) high pressure, low temperature, e) none of these. 15. On the diagram at left, in which fields would you expect to find gneiss? a) 14, b) 15 and 17, c) 16, 18, 20, d) 19,21,22, e) 22 only. 16. On the diagram at left, which region is one of intermediate pressure and low temperature? a) 17, b) 19, c) 15, d) 21, e) 22 17. On the diagram at left, where would phyllite form? a) 18, b) 22, c) 14, d) 15, e) phyllite is not on this diagram. 18. On the diagram at left, where would shale form? a) 22, b) shale is not on this diagram, c) 14, d) 16, e) 20 19. On the diagram at left, the region of high pressure and high temperature is a) 20, b) 22, c) 16, d) 14, e) 16
20. On the diagram above, the metamorphic grade increases from a) 20 to 14, b) 14 to 22, c) 16 to 14, d) all of these, e) metamorphic grade is not represented on this diagram. 21. On the diagram above, the trajectory representing burial metamorphism is a) 14 to 20, b) 14 to 22, c) 14 to 16, d) 20 to 22, e) 15 to 21. 22. On the diagram above, the trajectory representing tectonic metamorphism is a) 14 to 20, b) 14 to 22, c) 14 to 16, d) 20 to 22, e) 15 to 21. 23. On the diagram above, the trajectory representing metamorphism is a) 14 to 20, b) 14 to 22, c) 14 to 16, d) 20 to 22, e) 15 to 21. 24. Which of the following lists is arranged in order from lowest to highest grade of metamorphic rock? a) gneiss, slate, schist, phyllite, b) gneiss, schist, phyllite, slate, c) slate, gneiss, phyllite, schist, d) slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss, e) phyllite, gneiss, slate, schist. 25. Which of the following is not a mechanical layer of the Earth? a) lithosphere, b) mantle, c) inner core, d) outer core, e) asthenosphere. 26. The outermost mechanical layer of Earth is a) the mantle, b) the sima, c) the sial, d) the crust, e) the lithosphere. 27. Which of the following is not a class of mechanical behavior of Earth materials? a) soft solids, b) hard solids, c) cold solids, d) hot solids, e) none of these are mechanical behaviors of Earth materials. 28. The asthenosphere is a) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as brittle solids, b) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as plastic solids, c) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as fluids, d) that portion of Earth where rocks can be found, e) none of these. 29. The asthenosphere is composed of a) the crust only, b) the crust and upper mantle, c) the mantle only, d) the sial only, e) the sima only. 30. The lithosphere is composed of a) the crust and upper mantle, b) the mantle only, c) the sima, d) the sial, e) none of these. 31. The lithosphere is nearly isothermal because a) there is convection, b) there is heat produced everywhere in the asthenosphere, c) temperature has risen to the maximum that it can in the asthenosphere, d) Earth is a sphere, e) the lithosphere is not isothermal.
32. Large magnitude damaging earthquakes occur a) at transform plate boundaries, b) at oceancontinent convergent boundaries, c) at continent-continent convergent boundaries, d) at oceanocean convergent boundaries, e) all of these. 33. Which of the following is not a type of plate boundary a) transform, b) divergent, c) convergent, d) subductive, e) all of these are types of plate boundaries. 34. Volcanoes at convergent plate boundaries generally produce a) basalt, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) andesite, e) diorite. 35. Which of the following is associated with continent-continent convergent plate boundaries? a) explosive volcanism, b) andesite volcanism, c) large, damaging earthquakes, d) volcanic mountain chain, e) all of these. 36. Differentiation of Earth a) is an ongoing process, b) resulted in compositional layering of Earth’s interior, c) resulted in density layering of Earth’s interior, d) began early in Earth’s history, e) all of these. 37. Earthquakes usually occur at a) convergent plate boundaries, b) divergent plate boundaries, c) transform plate boundaries, d) all of these. 38. An example of a transform plate boundary is a) the Ouachita Mountains, b) the Appalachian Mountains, c) the Mid-Ocean Ridge, d) the San Andreas Fault, e) the Hawaiian Islands. 39. An example of a convergent plate boundary is a) the Ouachita Mountains, b) the Appalachian Mountains, c) the Himalaya Mountains, d) the Cascade Mountains, e) all of these are examples of convergent plate boundaries. 40. The island of Iceland is located on what type of plate boundary? a) ocean-ocean convergent boundary, b) ocean-continent convergent boundary, c) continent-continent convergent boundary, d) transform boundary, e) divergent boundary.
EXAM IV WITH ANSWERS - SPRING 2002 1. A fault where the footwall is displaced downward relative to the hanging wall is a) a normal fault, b) a reverse fault, c) a right-slip strike slip fault, d) a left-slip strike slip fault, e) a structure that is entirely my fault. 2. The footwall of a fault is always a) on the right of the fault, b) on the left of the fault, c) under the fault, d) displaced downward, e) none of these.
3. The strike of a layer is a) the angle at which that layer intercepts a horizontal surface, b) the degree to which the layer has compressed during mountain building, c) a line formed by the intersection of the layer with the Earth's surface, d) usually horizontal, e) all of these. 4. In a syncline, the oldest rocks will be found a) on top of the structure, b) in the middle of the structure, c) dipping within of the structure, d) along the axis of the structure, e) none of these. 5. A reverse fault is one where a) the hanging wall is displaced upward relative to the footwall, b) the footwall is displaced upward relative to the hanging wall, c) the dip of the fault plane is vertical, d) there is no relative displacement of the hanging wall and footwall, e) the footwall moves to the right of the hanging wall. 6. An anticline is a structure in which a) the oldest rock layers are located at the top of the structure, b) the rock layers dip away from the axis of the structure, c) rock layers are downwarped, d) all of the above are correct, e) none of these are correct. 7. For rocks to be folded, they must a) behave as brittle solids, b) behave as fluids, c) behave as plastic solids, d) be metamorphic, e) be volcanic. 8. Folding of rocks is usually associated with a) divergent plate boundaries, b) transform plate boundaries, c) convergent plate boundaries, d) old plate boundaries, e) the middle of plates. 9. Strike-slip faults are a) the same as transform faults, b) the same as normal faults, c) the same as reverse faults, d) the same as thrust faults, e) all of these. 10. When extreme forces are applied to brittle rocks, a) folds form, b) anticlines form, c) faults form, d) synclines form, e) none of these form. 11. A plunging syncline is one that a) has the oldest rocks near the axis, b) is upwarped, c) has an inclined axis, d) is the same as an anticline, e) plunges into a magma chamber. 12. The V-shaped outcrop pattern of a plunging syncline will a) be tilted, b) close in the direction of plunge, c) open in the direction of plunge, d) not be observed, e) point toward the axis. 13. In a simple anticline, all rock layers a) dip away from the axis, b) are horizontal, c) dip toward the axis, d) are downwarped, e) are faulted. 14. In a simple anticline, the oldest rock layers occur a) on the flanks of the fold, b) near the axis of the fold, c) where the axis plunges, d) anticlines contain only young rocks, e) none of these. 15. The San Andreas Fault in California is a) a strike-slip fault, b) a transform plate boundary, c) a right-lateral strike slip fault, d) a fault that generates many earthquakes, e) all of these.
16. The angle of inclination formed by a rock layer and the Earth's surface is a) the dip of the layer, b) the azimuth of the layer, c) the strike of the layer, d) the orientation of the layer, e) the line of the layer. 17. An anticline is a) a downwarped fold, b) an upwarped fold, c) I don't know what an anticline is. 18. A syncline is a) a downwarped fold, b) an upwarped fold, c) I don't know what an anticline is. 19. Anticlines and Synclines can be observed in Arkansas. a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) I don't know, e) did we cover this in class? 20. Faults characterized by vertical displacement are known as a) left-lateral strike slip faults, b) right lateral strike slip faults, c) strike slip faults, d) dip slip faults, e) none of these. 21. Faults characterized by horizontal displacement are known as a) normal faults, b) reverse faults, c) strike slip faults, d) dip slip faults, e) none of these. 22. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an anticline? a) youngest rocks on the flanks, b) oldest rocks near the axis, c) layers dip toward the axis, d) upwarped rock layers, e) all of these are features of an anticline. 23. Which of the following is a feature of a syncline? a) youngest rocks on the flanks, b) oldest rocks near the axis, c) layers dip toward the axis, d) upwarped rock layers, e) all of these are features of an anticline. 24. The Fayetteville Fault on the corner of Dickson Street and Arkansas Avenue is a) a normal fault, b) a reverse fault, c) an anticline , d) a synclines, e) none of these. 25. In central Arkansas, there are a) anticlines, b) synclines, c) plunging anticlines, d) plunging synclines, e) all of these.
26. This picture shows a fence offset by a fault. This is an example of a) a normal fault, b) a reverse fault, c) a right-lateral strike slip fault, d) a left-lateral strike slip fault, e) my fault. 27. The displacement on this fault is a) north-south, b) east-west, c) up-down, d) over-under, e) cannot determine without additional information. 28. a) Fill in letter "A" on your answer sheet, b) if you don't fill in "A", you won't get credit for #28, c) so fill in letter "A" d) no, really, fill in "A", e) you can fill in a letter other than "A" if you wish, but it
will be the wrong answer!
29. If the oldest rocks are near the axis of the structure on the right, it is a) a syncline, b) an anticline, c) a plunging syncline, d) a plunging anticline, e) none of these. 30. If the youngest rocks are near the axis of this structure, it is a) an anticline, b) a plunging syncline, c) an anticline, d) a plunging anticline, e) none of these. 31. If this is a syncline, a) it plunges toward the top, b) it plunges toward the bottom, c) it does not plunge, d) none of these. 32. If this is an anticline, a) it plunges toward the bottom, b) it plunges toward the top, c) it does not plunge, d) none of these. 33. If this is an anticline, a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the layers dip away from the axis, c) the layers do not dip, d) the layers are upside down, e) none of these. 34. If this is a syncline, a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the layers dip away from the axis, c) the layers do not dip, d) the layers are upside down, e) none of these. 35. This is a syncline. a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the youngest rocks are near the axis, c) the oldest rocks are on the flanks, d) it plunges to the top, e) all of these. 36. This is an anticline. a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the youngest rocks are near the axis, c) the oldest rocks are on the flanks, d) it plunges to the bottom, e) none of these.
EXAM V WITH ANSWERS - SPRING 2002 1. Geologists have recently determined the oldest rock on Earth to be about a) 4.4 billion years, b) 44 billion years, c) 440 million years, d) 4.4 million years, e) 3.8 billion years. 2. Which of the following is not a principle used in relative dating? a) the Principle of Superposition, b) the Principle of Original Horizontality, c) the Principle of Faunal Succession, d) the Principle of Cross-Cutting Relationships, e) The Theory of Evolution.
3. Charles Darwin thought the Principle of Faunal Succession worked because a) organisms had evolved through time, b) God had placed the organisms in their proper order in the rocks , c) it was a lucky coincidence, d) everyone else thought it worked, too, e) William Smith said so. 4. The first geologist to suggest that Earth was very ancient was a) Charles Darwin, b) William Smith, c) Archbishop Ussher, d) James Hutton, e) Thomas Huxley. 5. Eons are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of millions of years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these. 6. Epochs are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of millions of years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these. 7. Periods are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of millions of years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these. 8. Eras are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of millions of years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these. 9. The oldest geological evidence of life on Earth is a) 545 million years old, b) 3.8 billion years old, c) 6,000 years old, d) 2 billion years old, e) 8 billion years old. 10. The oldest known human fossils are a) 6,000 years old, b) 600,000 years old, c) 4 billion years old, d) 4 million years old, e) have never been found. 11. Measurement of radioactive elements in rocks a) provides the relative age of the rock, b) is no longer feasible because of contamination due to nuclear testing, c) provides the absolute age of the rock, d) never works because rocks contain only trace quantities of radioactivity, e) none of these. 12. What is the half-life of a radioactive element? a) the time required for one-half of a given quantity of the element to decay to its daughter element, b) the time required for all of the radioactive element to decay to its daughter element, c) half of the time required for a given quantity of the element to decay to its daughter element, d) the time required for the radioactive element to decay half of the time, e) if you observe a radioactive element, half the time it decays, half the time it doesn't. 13. Sometime in the geologic past, a rock formed which contained 16 grams of a radioactive element. Presently, only 2 grams of that element remain. The other 14 grams have decayed to the daughter element. How many half-lives of the original element have ed since the rock formed? a) 5, b) 4, c) 3, d) 2, e) 1.
14. Suppose the radioactive element above has a half-life of 5 million years. How old is the rock? a) half as old as a rock that contains 32 grams of the radioactive element, b) 2.5 million years, c) 1 million years, d) 20 million years, e) 15 million years 15. Plants introduced oxygen into Earth's atmosphere a) 4.5 billion years ago, b) 3.8 billion years ago, c) 2 billion years ago, d) 440 million years ago, e) 66 million years ago. 16. Geologically, which came first: a) the "Age of Mammals", b) dinosaur extinction. 17. Plants first colonized land a) about 2 billion years ago, b) about 3.8 billion years ago, c) about 440 million years ago, d) about 245 million years ago. 18. What percentage of Earth's history had elapsed before plants colonized land? a) 90%, b) 10%, c) 50%, d) 25%, e) 5%. 19. Approximately what percentage of Earth's history elapsed before the first humans walked? a) 90%, b) 95%, c) 97.5%, d) 99%, e) 99.9% 20. Unconformities in the geologic record represent a) gaps in the geologic record, b) an interval when no sediment was deposited, c) an interval where erosion removed a portion of the geologic record, d) an interval of mountain building, e) all of these. 21. How much time can be represented by unconformities? a) a few years, b) thousands of years, c) millions of years, d) billions of years, e) all of these are possible. 22. Relative dating methods are used to determine a) the age in years of a geologic event, b) the chronological sequence of geological events, c) the age in millions of years of a geological event, d) the age in billions of years of a geological event, e) none of these. 23. Which of the following phenomena will affect the half-life of a radioactive element? a) high temperatures deep within Earth, b) high pressures deep within the Earth, c) changes in climate, d) increase in cosmic rays in Earth's atmosphere, e) none of these affect the half-life - it is constant. 24. The Principle of Faunal Succession states that a) fossils preserved in rock layers are less complex in older rocks, b) the Theory of Evolution is proven by the succession of fossils observed in rocks, c) the fossil record of life proves that life has succeeded on Earth, d) it is unlikely that life could have succeeded on other planets, e) none of these. 25. The Principle of Faunal Succession a) was first stated by Charles Darwin, b) was developed for the first time in Darwin's "Origin of Species", c) was outlined prior to Darwin's hypothesis of Evolution, d) has been disproved by modern geological research, e) none of these.
26. What percentage of Earth history do some geologists estimate is actually preserved by the sedimentary rock record? a) 90%, b) 50%, c) 25%, d) 10%, e) 5%. 27. With respect to the question above, what is the remainder of Earth history composed of? a) unconformities, b) igneous rocks, c) metamorphic rocks, d) magma, e) none of these. 28. Aten asteroids are those a) which will not strike Earth, b) whose orbits have diameters smaller than Earth's and which cross our path, c) whose orbits have diameters greater than Earth's and which cross our path, d) the largest asteroids in our solar system, e) the smallest asteroids in our solar system. 29. Apollo asteroids are those a) which will not strike Earth, b) whose orbits have diameters smaller than Earth's and which cross our path, c) whose orbits have diameters greater than Earth's and which cross our path, d) the largest asteroids in our solar system, e) the smallest asteroids in our solar system. 30. Asteroids and other space debris in the vicinity of Earth are called a) Trouble, b) Thunder Stones, c) Near Earth Objects, d) Magic Bullets, e) none of these. 31. The minimum diameter asteroid which can cause a world-wide catastrophe is believed to be a) 1-2 kilometers, b) 60-70 meters, c) two tons, d) about the size of Ozark Hall, e) none of these. 32. The energy released from an asteroid impact causing a global catastrophe must be at least a) 100 megatons of TNT, b) 1,000 megatons of TNT, c) 10,000 megatons of TNT, d) 100,000 megatons of TNT, e) 1 million megatons of TNT. 33. Compared to being killed by a tornado, you are a) 100 times more likely to be killed by an asteroid, b) 20 times more likely to be killed by an asteroid, c) 1 million times more likely to be killed by an asteroid, d) 1000 times more likely to be killed by an asteroid, e) much more likely to be killed by a tornado than an asteroid. 34. Since 1995, how many asteroids have astronomers identified? a) fewer the two dozen, b) about 170, c) 1,000, d) 10,000, e) over 37,000. 35. True or False: Humans have never witnessed an impact of a comet or asteroid with Earth. a) True, b) False, c) maybe, d) it depends on how you look at it, e) Humans have never seen this, but we do see craters around the world. 36. True or False: An asteroid or comet struck a remote area of Siberia in 1908. a) True, b) False, c) maybe, d) it depends on how you look at it, e) this event has been proven to be a hoax.
37. The geologist highlighted in the one of the videos on asteroid impacts was a) James Hutton, b) Stephen Boss, c) Alfred Wegener, d) Archbishop Ussher, e) Eugene Shoemaker. 38. The extraterrestrial object responsible for the extinction of dinosaurs struck Earth a) in northern Canada, b) in Italy, c) in Mexico, d) in Siberia, e) in Iceland. 39. The asteroid impact responsible for dinosaur extinction occurred approximately a) 66 million years ago, b) 1 billion years ago, c) 4 thousand years ago, d) 200 million years ago, e) never happened. Q40.During which era did the initial opening of the present-day Atlantic Ocean most likely occur? 1. Cenozoic 2. Mesozoic 3. Paleozoic 4. Late Proterozoic Q 41.The absolute age of a rock is the approximate number of years ago that the rock formed. The absolute age of an igneous rock can best be determined by 5. comparing the amounts of decayed and undecayed radioactive isotopes in the rock 6. comparing the sizes of the crystals found in the upper and lower parts of the rock 7. examining the rock’s relative position in a rock outcrop 8. examining the environment in which the rock is found 9. Q42.In which type of environment were the sediments that formed these sedimentary rock layers most likely deposited? 1 glacial 2 mountainous 3 marine 4 terrestrial plateau Q43.sedimentary rock layers at the three locations can be most accurately correlated by comparing the thickness of the sedimentary rock layers 2 foliation bands in the metamorphic basement rocks 1
3 fossils in the sedimentary rocks 4 minerals in the igneous rocks Q44 Which feature is represented by the symbol along the edges of the dike and sills? 1 metamorphic rock 2 an unconformity 3 a glacial moraine 4 index fossils Q45 Which radioactive isotope is most useful for determining the age of mastodont bones found in late Pleistocene sediments? 1 uranium-238 2 carbon-14 3 potassium-40 4 rubidium-87 Q46 What does the presence of the fossils suggest about the Hamilton area during the Devonian? 2 2 3 4
It had a terrestrial environment sometime between 443 and 418 million years ago. It had a terrestrial environment sometime between 418 and 362 million years ago. It had a marine environment sometime between 443 and 418 million years ago. It had a marine environment sometime between 418 and 362 million years ago.
Multiple Choice Questions Introduction to Geology Chapter 1 Introduction to the Earth
Which of the following statements regarding the scientific methods is true? A hypothesis must be agreed upon by more than one scientist 100
A theory is a hypothesis that has withstood many 100
scientifi c tests A theory is proven to be true, and therefore may not be 100
discarded A hypothesis cannot predict the outcome of scientific 100
experiments
1
According to the principle of uniformatarianism, geologic processes we observe today have operated in the past
100
geologic process in the past operated at the same rate as they do today 100
all of the planets formed from a uniform solar nebula 100
early Earth was covered by a uniform magma ocean 100
2
Approximately how long ago did the Big Bang take place? 10-15 thousand years ago
100
10-15 million years ago 100
100-150 million years ago 100
10-15 billion years ago 100
3
Under intense pressure and high temperature, hydrogen atoms combine to form helium. This process is called: nuclear fusion
100
nuclear fission 100
metamorphism 100
convection 100
4
Referring to the diagram what factor(s) are responsible for path C? melting
100
crystallization 100
heat and pressure 100
burial and lithification 100
5
What are the two most abundant elements in nebula (gas clouds) in the universe? nitrogen and oxygen
100
oxygen and silicon 100
hydrogen and helium 100
iron and nickel 100
6
What are the two most abundant elements in nebula (gas clouds) in the universe? nitrogen and oxygen
100
oxygen and silicon 100
hydrogen and helium 100
iron and nickel 100
7
The process by which an originally homogeneous Earth developed a dense core and a light crust is called: metamorphism
100
differentiation 100
accretion 100
compression 100
8
The heat that caused melting in the Earth's early history was supplied from which of the following events or causes? volcanic activity and radioactivity
100
solar heating and volcanic activity 100
a large impact event and radioactivity 100
a large impact event and solar heating 100
9
How thick is the crust of the Earth? about 4 miles
100
about 4 km 100
about 40 km 100
about 400 km 100
10 The layer that separates crust from core is the?
magma layer 100
lithosphere 100
mantle 100
continent 100
11 What drives the Earth's internal heat engine? radioactivity 100
solar energy 100
volcanoes 100
ocean tides 100
12 In general, igneous rocks: form at relatively high temperatures 100
form by crystallization of solids from a liquid 100
form at high and low pressures 100
all of the above 100
13 Minerals: can form by life-processes -- organic 100
are crystalline solids 100
have a unique chemical composition 100
can be any state (solid, liquid, or gas) as long as that state occurs naturally 100
14 Metamorphic rocks are changed rocks. Which of the following rock types could be the "parent" of a metamorphic rock? sedimentary 100
igneous 100
metamorphic 100
all of the above 100
15 _______involves transfer of heat by the physical movement of the material: conduction 100
convection 100
metamorphism 100
radiation 100
16 __________is called the "father" of geology. John Butler 100
Art Smith 100
James Hutton 100
Alfred Wegner 100
17 New seafloor is created at a ____________? deep-sea trench 100
mid-ocean ridge 100
subduction zone 100
transform fault 100
18 The descent of oceanic lithosphere into the mantle is the process of _______? accretion 100
subduction 100
divergence zone 100
contraction fault 100
19 Which of the following features is not associated with a convergent plate boundary? a mid-ocean ridge 100
earthquakes 100
a deep-sea trench zone 100
volcanic activity 100
20 The greatest threat to our environment is ___________? volcanoes 100
earthquakes 100
humans 100
bacteria 100
21 Earth materials always trace the complete rock cycle from sediment through igneous rocks. True 100
False 100
22 The crust and lithosphere are synonymous. True 100
False 100
23 The mantle and asthenosphere are synonymous. True 100
False 100
24 Because we rarely witness dramatic changes in the Earth, we can conclude that the Earth is not changing very much. True 100
False 100
25 The motions of the three types of plate boundaries would be described as divergent, convergent, and static.
True 100
False 100
26 The crust of the Earth is static and stable. True 100
False 100
27 Features useful in defining plate boundaries include all except: shorelines between continents and oceans 100
distribution of volcanoes 100
distribution of earthquakes 100
distribution of mountain ranges 100
all are correct 100
28 The age of the Earth is currently thought to be about 6,000 years old 100
about 6 billion years old 100
about 4,500,000,000 years old 100
29 The contribution made to geology by James Hutton was: the recognition that processes still active today could produce almost any 100
known rock type. the description of plausible processes for converting one rock type to 100
another. a change in outlook on Earth processes from a catastrophic to a 100
uniformitarian one. all of the above 100
none of the above 100
30 One of geology's greatest contributions to human thought is: the realization that the world is round 100
the realization that the sun not the Earth is the center of the solar system 100
the recognition of the long span of time involved in Earth history 100
the recognition that the Earth is the center of the solar system 100
31 Evidence of uniformitarian change includes: glacial deposits in areas where no glaciers are presently found. 100
fossils of marine animals found at high elevation 100
continents covered by sediments deposited in an ocean 100
wide canyons cut by small streams 100
all of the above 100
none of the above 100
32 Living organisms have been on Earth for ______ of Earth's history? less than 1% 100
about 20% 100
about 50% 100
about 80% 100
33 Humans have been on Earth for _________ of Earth;s history? less than 1% 100
about 20% 100
about 50% 100
about 80% 100
34 What caused dust and condensing material to accrete into planetesimals? heating of gases 100
gravitational attraction and collisions 100
nuclear fusion 100
rotation of the proto-sun 100
35 Which of the following is not one of the four inner planets? Mars 100
Earth 100
Neptune 100
Mars 100
36 The outer planets are composed mostly of ?
rocks and ice 100
oxygen and nitrogen 100
hydrogen and helium 100
helium and krypton 100
37 The moon is ? older than the sun 100
older than most meteorites 100
older than the Earth 100
none of these 100
38 The name of the layer of the Earth that separates the crust from the core is the ___? magma 100
lithosphere 100
asthenosphere 100
mantle 100
39 What powers the Earth's internal heat engine?
radioactivity 100
solar energy 100
volcanoes 100
ocean tides 100
40 The Earth's external heat engine is not responsible for which of the following: climate 100
erosion 100
tides 100
winds 100
41 Oxygen built up in the Earth's atmosphere because: the oceans separated from the crust 100
rocks weathered and released their oxygen 100
algae and other organisms employed photosynthesis 100
oxygen settled on Earth from planets further from the sun 100
42 Which of the planets is not geologically active? Mars 100
Mercury 100
Venus 100
Earth 100
43 When did geologists develop the theory of plate tectonics
in the mid 1800s 100
in the early 1900s 100
in the 1950s 100
in the 1960s 100
44 The lithosphere is approximately ______ kilometers thick. 1-2 100
5-10 100
50-100 100
100-200 100
45 The asthenosphere is _________. cool and strong 100
cool and weak 100
hot and strong 100
hot and weak 100
46 The Earth's lithosphere is broken into approximately ______ large, rigid plates. 2 100
12 100
50 100
100 100
47 A __________ plate boundary is illustrated in the figure show above. transform fault 100
divergent 100
convergent - subduction 100
convergent - continent/continent collision 100
48 Which of the following statements about convection is true? heat is transferred from hot material to cool material without inducing a 100
flow. cool material flows upward and displaces hot material 100
hot material flows upward and displaces cool material 100
random circulation occurs 100
49 Approximately how fast does an Earth lithospheric plate move?
several centimeters per year 100
several centimeters per day 100
several centimeters per hour 100
several centimeters per second 100
50 Which of the following is not a type of plate boundary? convergent 100
divergent 100
transform fault 100
all of these are plate boundaries 100
51 New seafloor is created at a ________. deep sea trench 100
mid-ocean ridge 100
subduction zone 100
transform fault 100
52 The descent of oceanic lithosphere into the mantle is the process of ______. subduction 100
accretion 100
divergence 100
contraction 100
53 Approximately how deep (below sea level) are deep-sea trenches? 1 km 100
10 km 100
100 km 100
1000 km 100
54 Which of the following features is not associated with a transform plate boundary? a mid-ocean ridge 100
earthquakes 100
a deep sea-trench 100
volcanic activity 100
55 Volcanism is associated with which of the following types of plate boundaries? convergent plate boundaries 100
divergent plate boundaries 100
transform fault plate boundaries 100
divergent and convergent plate boundaries 100
56 The Andes Mountains of South America are a result of which type of plate boundary? convergent 100
divergent 100
transform 100
they are not related to a plate boundary 100
57 Mount St. Helen's. a part of the Cascade Range of volcanoes, result from the subduction of which plate? Pacific 100
Cocos 100
Juan de Fuca 100
North American 100
58 What is the name of the large supercontinent that existed 200 million years ago when all of the continents were together? San Andreas 100
2 Andian
3 Indian
4 pangea
100
59 Why is our vulnerability to natural disasters growing? because the frequency of volcanic eruptions is increasing 100
because the human population is increasing 100
because the number of earthquakes each year is increasing 100
because the number of floods each year is increasing 100
60 The theory of plate tectonics was not initially widely accepted because ______..
land bridges would have blocked plate movement 100
rocks of the Earth's crust were considered too stiff for continents to move 100
through them fossils on South America and Africa did not match 100
ocean floor mapping showed that older rocks occur away from mid-ocean 100
ridges 61 Referring to the diagram above, path A is _______ cooling and crystallization 100
burial and lithification 100
weathering and deposition 100
cooling and uplift 100
62 Referring to the diagram above, path B is _______ uplift, weathering and erosion, deposition 100
deposition, heat and pressure, weathering 100
melting, crystallization, heat and pressure 100
deposition, lithification and crystallization 100
63 Referring to the diagram what factor(s) are responsible for path C? melting 100
crystallization 100
heat and pressure 100
burial and lithification 100
12. The color of a powdered mineral is a) the same as the color of the mineral specimen, b) its streak, c) determined by the types of impurities in the mineral, d) is not a reliable physical property, e) none of these. 13. Which of the following minerals are arranged in order of increasing hardness? a) talc, apatite, corundum, diamond, b) topaz, quartz, fluorite, corundum, c) talc, quartz, calcite, diamond, d) quartz, topaz, diamond, fluorite, e) fluorite, calcite, gypsum, talc. 14. What type of silicate is Muscovite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 15. What type of silicate is Biotite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 16. What type of silicate is Augite? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 17. What type of silicate is Olivine? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 18. What type of silicate is Quartz? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 19. What type of silicate is Hornblende? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 20. What type of silicate is Feldspar? a) isolated tetrahedra, b) single chain, c) double chain, d) sheet, e) framework. 21. How do the crystal structures of micas and feldspars differ from each other? a) feldspars are framework silicates, micas are double chain silicates, b) feldspars are double chain silicates, micas are sheet silicates, c) micas and feldspars have the same crystalline structure, d) feldspars are single chain silicates, micas are double chain silicates, e) micas are sheet silicates, feldspars are framework silicates. 22. Cubic zirconia are synthetic stones that are manufactured as inexpensive substitutes for diamonds in jewelry. Are cubic zirconia minerals? a) yes, b) no, c) maybe, d) it depends on your point of view, e) none of these. 23. Hypsometry is a) the average elevation of Earth, b) the highest elevation on Earth, c) the lowest elevation on Earth, d) the percent area at different elevations on Earth, e) none of these.
24. Which of the following is not a terrestrial planet? a) Earth, b) Mars, c) Venus, d), the Moon, e) all of these are considered terrestrial planets. 25. Earth’s atmosphere is different from other planets because a) it contains abundant nitrogen, b) it contains abundant oxygen, c) it contains only small amounts of carbon dioxide, d) it contains abundant water vapor, e) all of these. 26. The atmospheres of Venus and Mars contain mostly a) oxygen, b) methane, c) hydrogen sulfide, d) carbon dioxide, e) argon. 27. The planet that is most dense is a) Mars, b) Earth, c) Venus, d) the Moon, e) Mercury. 28. Is life abundant in the Universe? a) yes, b) no, c) no one can say, d) it is highly likely, e) it is highly unlikely. 29. True or False: The terrestrial planet with the smallest diameter also has the smallest mass. a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) it depends on how you define "mass", e) it depends on how you define "diameter". 30. The hypsometry of Earth is a) bimodal, b) unique among the terrestrial planets, c) due to the presence of continents and ocean basins, d) different than the other terrestrial planets, e) all of these. 31. The hypsometry of Earth resulted from a) a collision with an asteroid, b) random chance, c) the gravitational attraction of the Sun, d) geologic processes of differentiation, e) all of these. 32. Rocks of the continents are enriched in the elements a) silicon and iron, b) iron and magnesium, c) silicon and aluminum, d) magnesium and aluminum, e) magnesium and silicon. 33. Rocks of the ocean basins are enriched in the elements a) silicon and iron, b) iron and magnesium, c) silicon and aluminum, d) magnesium and aluminum, e) magnesium and silicon. 34. Geologic processes that resulted in the formation of continents and ocean basins a) were only active during Earth’s early history, b) are still active today, c) cannot be observed by scientists, d) have occurred on the other terrestrial planets, e) all of these. 35. "Sima" is a general term used to refer to a) rocks of the ocean basins, b) rocks of the continents, c) all rocks that compose Earth’s crust, d) rocks that compose the crust of terrestrial planets, e) none of these. 36. "Sial" is a) found only on Earth, b) found in the crust of all other terrestrial planets, c) found only in the ocean basins of Earth, d) found only in rocks of the Moon, e) none of these.
37. The largest terrestrial planet is a) Mercury, b) Venus, c) Earth, d) Mars, e) Jupiter. 38. The concentration of carbon dioxide in Earth’s atmosphere is a) 97%, b) 78%, c) 20%, d) 3%, e) 0.035%. 39. The planet with the highest surface temperature is a) Venus, b) Earth, c) Mars, d) the Moon, e) Mercury. 40. Since 1960, how many of the nine planets of our solar system have been visited by space probes? a) two, b) four, c) six, d) eight, e) nine.
EXAM II WITH ANSWERS - SPRING 2002 1. Which of the following parameters influences the viscosity of magma? a) temperature of the magma, b) oxygen content of the magma, c) depth of the magma beneath Earth’s surface, d) quantity of minerals in the magma, e) all of these affect the viscosity of magma. 2. You discover a rock with aphanitic texture containing amphibole, biotite, and sodium feldspar. This is a) gabbro, b) granite, c) basalt, d) andesite, e) diorite. 3. The rock in #2 above is a) volcanic, b) plutonic, c) porphyritic, d) highly weathered, e) none of these. 4. The magma giving rise to the rock in #2 had a temperature of about a) 1200oC, b) 1000oC, c) 800oC, d) 451oF, e) none of these. 5. The viscosity of magma yielding the rock in #2 is a) relatively low, b) somewhat intermediate, c) relatively high, d) non-existent, e) none of these. 6. The Continuous Series of Bowen’s Reaction Series is composed of minerals a) with different chemical compositions but the same mineral structures, b) with different chemical compositions and different mineral structures, c) with similar chemical compositions and different mineral structures, d) with similar chemical compositions and similar mineral structures, e) none of these. 7. Bowen’s Reaction Series shows the relations between a) temperature, viscosity, and mineral composition, b) temperature, chemical composition, and mineral structure, c) viscosity, temperature, silica content, and volatile content, d) temperature, pressure, and viscosity, e) none of these. 8. The two important criteria used for igneous rock classification are a) temperature and texture, b) mineral composition and temperature, c) mineral composition and texture, d) temperature and viscosity, e) Bowen’s Reaction Series and texture.
9. Basalt and andesite a) have the same minerals, b) formed from magma with the same temperature, c) formed from magma with the same viscosity, d) formed from magma with the same silica content, e) none of these. 10. An igneous rock with minerals that can be seen with the unaided eye exhibits a) porphyritic texture, b) aphanitic texture, c) pyroclastic texture, d) phaneritic texture, e) visible texture. 11. Root wedging a) is a rare weathering phenomenon, b) occurs only in rain forests, c) occurs whenever plants germinate in rocks, d) is a theoretical weathering phenomenon, e) has never been observed in nature. 12. Root wedging is common in a) polar climates, b) temperate climates, c) tropical climates, d) any climate, e) none of these. 13. True or False: Granite headstones typically weather more rapidly than limestone headstones. a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) it depends how you look at it, e) I should’ve been in class on Friday. 14. True or False: Our beloved Senior Walk is being mechanically weathered by skateboarders and in-line skaters. a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) it depends how you look at it, e) SLACKERS! 15. Which of the following is a form of mechanical weathering? a) dissolution, b) chemical weathering, c) oxidation, d) hydrolysis, e) none of these is a form of mechanical weathering. 16. Caves form as a result of a) mechanical weathering of limestone, b) oxidation of limestone, c) dissolution of limestone, d) hydrolysis of limestone, e) frost wedging in limestone. 17. Plutonic igneous rocks always have a) olivine, calcium feldspar, pyroxene, b) amphibole, sodium feldspar, biotite, c) quartz, muscovite, potassium feldspar, d) phaneritic texture, e) none of these. 18. Explosive volcanoes always have a) relatively low silica magmas, b) relatively low volatile contents, c) relatively high temperature magmas, d) relatively low viscosity magmas, e) none of these. 19. Hawaiian volcanic eruptions are not too dangerous because a) the magma viscosity is high, b) the silica content of the magma is low, c) the temperature of the magma is low, d) the gas content of the magma is low, e) all of these. Use your knowledge of Bowen’s Reaction Series and igneous rock classification to complete the table below: SILICA CONTENT
MINERAL COMPOSITION
PHANERITIC TEXTURE
APHANITIC TEXTURE
HIGH
20
21
22
INTERMEDIATE
23
24
25
LOW
26
27
28
20. a) gabbro, basalt, granite, b) sodium feldspar, pyroxene, muscovite, c) muscovite, quartz, potassium feldspar, d) olivine, pyroxene, calcium feldspar, e) none of these. 21. a) gabbro, b) diorite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) andesite. 22. a) rhyolite, b) gabbro, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite. 23. a) olivine, calcium feldspar, pyroxene, b) calcium feldspar, sodium feldspar, potassium feldspar, c) quartz, granite, muscovite, d) pyroxene, amphibole, biotite, e) hornblende, biotite, sodium feldspar. 24. a) andesite, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite. 25. a) andesite, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite. 26. a) quartz, biotite, olivine, b) olivine, quartz, sodium feldspar, c) quartz, muscovite, potassium feldspar, d) quartz, pyroxene, sodium feldspar, e) none of these. 27. a) gabbro, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite. 28. a) gabbro, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) basalt, e) diorite. Answer the questions below regarding Bowen’s Reaction Series. 29. The first mineral to form in the Discontinuous Series: a) calcium feldspar, b) biotite, c) hornblende, d) olivine, e) quartz. 30. A high-temperature framework silicate: a) calcium feldspar, b) biotite, c) hornblende, d) olivine, e) quartz. 31. A single chain silicate: a) olivine, b) amphibole, c) pyroxene, d) biotite, e) hornblende. 32. An intermediate temperature framework silicate: a) calcium feldspar, b) potassium feldspar, c) biotite, d) muscovite, e) none of these. 33. The double chain silicate: a) quartz, b) muscovite, c) biotite, d) hornblende, e) sodium feldspar.
34. A low temperature sheet silicate: a) biotite, b) muscovite, c) quartz, d) calcium feldspar, e) olivine. 35. An intermediate temperature sheet silicate: a) biotite, b) muscovite, c) quartz, d) calcium feldspar, e) olivine. 36. A low temperature framework silicate: a) hornblende, b) potassium feldspar, c) augite, d) olivine, e) none of these. 37. The last mineral to form in Bowen’s Reaction Series: a) hornblende, b) quartz, c) augite, d) olivine, e) none of these. 38. Weathering processes a) only affect igneous rocks, b) only affect sedimentary rocks, c) affect all rocks at Earth’s surface, d) do not adversely affect rocks, e) cannot be observed directly at Earth’s surface. 39. Rates of rock weathering are fastest a) in polar climates, b) in temperate climates, c) in tropical climates, d) in arid climates, e) none of these. 40. A rock with aphanitic texture and low temperature minerals is a) gabbro, b) rhyolite, c) andesite, d) diorite, e) basalt.
EXAM III WITH ANSWERS - Spring 2002 "It is our attitude at the beginning of a difficult undertaking which more than anything else, will determine its outcome"-- William James 1. Which of the following is a class of rocks? a) sedimentary rocks, b) igneous rocks, c) metamorphic rocks, d) all of these are classes of rocks. 2. The process whereby rocks are changed to sediment is called a) lithification, b) deposition, c) weathering, d) compaction, e) solidification. 3. A sedimentary rock composed of rounded particles of gravel is a) breccia, b) sandstone, c) particle stone, d) gravelstone, e) conglomerate. 4. A sedimentary rock composed of angular particles of sand is called a) sandstone, b) conglomerate, c) breccia, d) siltsone, e) soapstone. 5. Sedimentary particles with a size range larger than 256mm a) pebbles, b) silt, c) sand, d) boulders, e) cobbles. 6. A layer in which the grain size becomes smaller vertically through the layer is called a) foliated, b) graded bedding, c) cross-bedded, d) is not observed in nature, e) none of these.
7. The principal agents of metamorphism are a) heat and chemical composition, b) texture and composition, c) pressure and texture, d) heat and pressure, e) volcanoes and earthquakes. 8. Mud cracks preserved in sedimentary rocks a) are indicative of arid environments characterized by occasional rain, b) occur only in rain forests, c) occur whenever plants germinate in rocks, d) have never been observed in nature. 9. Sedimentary rocks provide clues about a) Earth surface conditions at the time the sediment formed, b) temperate climates, c) tropical climates, d) polar climates, e) all of these. 10.Cross-bedding observed in river sand can be used a) to determine the direction the water was flowing, b) to determine the speed of the river, c) determine the height of the waves in the river, d) to determine the temperature at the time the ripples formed, e) none of these. 11. As one goes deeper beneath Earth’s surface, a) pressure increases, b) temperature increases, c) rocks become more dense, d) the mechanical behavior of rocks changes, e) all of these. 12. A sedimentary rock composed of clay-sized particles is called: a) siltstone, b) shale, c) breccia, d) diatomaceous earth, e) none of these. 13. Chemical sedimentary rocks are a) formed from weathered remains of other rocks, b) never found at Earth’s surface, c) precipitated from various solutions, d) formed only in arid environments, e) formed only in marine environments. 14. On the diagram at left, what are the pressure and temperature conditions in the section labeled 15? a) low pressure, low temperature, b) high pressure, high temperature, c) low pressure, high temperature, d) high pressure, low temperature, e) none of these. 15. On the diagram at left, in which fields would you expect to find gneiss? a) 14, b) 15 and 17, c) 16, 18, 20, d) 19,21,22, e) 22 only. 16. On the diagram at left, which region is one of intermediate pressure and low temperature? a) 17, b) 19, c) 15, d) 21, e) 22 17. On the diagram at left, where would phyllite form? a) 18, b) 22, c) 14, d) 15, e) phyllite is not on this diagram. 18. On the diagram at left, where would shale form? a) 22, b) shale is not on this diagram, c) 14, d) 16, e) 20 19. On the diagram at left, the region of high pressure and high temperature is a) 20, b) 22, c) 16, d) 14, e) 16
20. On the diagram above, the metamorphic grade increases from a) 20 to 14, b) 14 to 22, c) 16 to 14, d) all of these, e) metamorphic grade is not represented on this diagram. 21. On the diagram above, the trajectory representing burial metamorphism is a) 14 to 20, b) 14 to 22, c) 14 to 16, d) 20 to 22, e) 15 to 21. 22. On the diagram above, the trajectory representing tectonic metamorphism is a) 14 to 20, b) 14 to 22, c) 14 to 16, d) 20 to 22, e) 15 to 21. 23. On the diagram above, the trajectory representing metamorphism is a) 14 to 20, b) 14 to 22, c) 14 to 16, d) 20 to 22, e) 15 to 21. 24. Which of the following lists is arranged in order from lowest to highest grade of metamorphic rock? a) gneiss, slate, schist, phyllite, b) gneiss, schist, phyllite, slate, c) slate, gneiss, phyllite, schist, d) slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss, e) phyllite, gneiss, slate, schist. 25. Which of the following is not a mechanical layer of the Earth? a) lithosphere, b) mantle, c) inner core, d) outer core, e) asthenosphere. 26. The outermost mechanical layer of Earth is a) the mantle, b) the sima, c) the sial, d) the crust, e) the lithosphere. 27. Which of the following is not a class of mechanical behavior of Earth materials? a) soft solids, b) hard solids, c) cold solids, d) hot solids, e) none of these are mechanical behaviors of Earth materials. 28. The asthenosphere is a) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as brittle solids, b) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as plastic solids, c) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as fluids, d) that portion of Earth where rocks can be found, e) none of these. 29. The asthenosphere is composed of a) the crust only, b) the crust and upper mantle, c) the mantle only, d) the sial only, e) the sima only. 30. The lithosphere is composed of a) the crust and upper mantle, b) the mantle only, c) the sima, d) the sial, e) none of these. 31. The lithosphere is nearly isothermal because a) there is convection, b) there is heat produced everywhere in the asthenosphere, c) temperature has risen to the maximum that it can in the asthenosphere, d) Earth is a sphere, e) the lithosphere is not isothermal.
32. Large magnitude damaging earthquakes occur a) at transform plate boundaries, b) at oceancontinent convergent boundaries, c) at continent-continent convergent boundaries, d) at oceanocean convergent boundaries, e) all of these. 33. Which of the following is not a type of plate boundary a) transform, b) divergent, c) convergent, d) subductive, e) all of these are types of plate boundaries. 34. Volcanoes at convergent plate boundaries generally produce a) basalt, b) rhyolite, c) granite, d) andesite, e) diorite. 35. Which of the following is associated with continent-continent convergent plate boundaries? a) explosive volcanism, b) andesite volcanism, c) large, damaging earthquakes, d) volcanic mountain chain, e) all of these. 36. Differentiation of Earth a) is an ongoing process, b) resulted in compositional layering of Earth’s interior, c) resulted in density layering of Earth’s interior, d) began early in Earth’s history, e) all of these. 37. Earthquakes usually occur at a) convergent plate boundaries, b) divergent plate boundaries, c) transform plate boundaries, d) all of these. 38. An example of a transform plate boundary is a) the Ouachita Mountains, b) the Appalachian Mountains, c) the Mid-Ocean Ridge, d) the San Andreas Fault, e) the Hawaiian Islands. 39. An example of a convergent plate boundary is a) the Ouachita Mountains, b) the Appalachian Mountains, c) the Himalaya Mountains, d) the Cascade Mountains, e) all of these are examples of convergent plate boundaries. 40. The island of Iceland is located on what type of plate boundary? a) ocean-ocean convergent boundary, b) ocean-continent convergent boundary, c) continent-continent convergent boundary, d) transform boundary, e) divergent boundary.
EXAM IV WITH ANSWERS - SPRING 2002 1. A fault where the footwall is displaced downward relative to the hanging wall is a) a normal fault, b) a reverse fault, c) a right-slip strike slip fault, d) a left-slip strike slip fault, e) a structure that is entirely my fault. 2. The footwall of a fault is always a) on the right of the fault, b) on the left of the fault, c) under the fault, d) displaced downward, e) none of these.
3. The strike of a layer is a) the angle at which that layer intercepts a horizontal surface, b) the degree to which the layer has compressed during mountain building, c) a line formed by the intersection of the layer with the Earth's surface, d) usually horizontal, e) all of these. 4. In a syncline, the oldest rocks will be found a) on top of the structure, b) in the middle of the structure, c) dipping within of the structure, d) along the axis of the structure, e) none of these. 5. A reverse fault is one where a) the hanging wall is displaced upward relative to the footwall, b) the footwall is displaced upward relative to the hanging wall, c) the dip of the fault plane is vertical, d) there is no relative displacement of the hanging wall and footwall, e) the footwall moves to the right of the hanging wall. 6. An anticline is a structure in which a) the oldest rock layers are located at the top of the structure, b) the rock layers dip away from the axis of the structure, c) rock layers are downwarped, d) all of the above are correct, e) none of these are correct. 7. For rocks to be folded, they must a) behave as brittle solids, b) behave as fluids, c) behave as plastic solids, d) be metamorphic, e) be volcanic. 8. Folding of rocks is usually associated with a) divergent plate boundaries, b) transform plate boundaries, c) convergent plate boundaries, d) old plate boundaries, e) the middle of plates. 9. Strike-slip faults are a) the same as transform faults, b) the same as normal faults, c) the same as reverse faults, d) the same as thrust faults, e) all of these. 10. When extreme forces are applied to brittle rocks, a) folds form, b) anticlines form, c) faults form, d) synclines form, e) none of these form. 11. A plunging syncline is one that a) has the oldest rocks near the axis, b) is upwarped, c) has an inclined axis, d) is the same as an anticline, e) plunges into a magma chamber. 12. The V-shaped outcrop pattern of a plunging syncline will a) be tilted, b) close in the direction of plunge, c) open in the direction of plunge, d) not be observed, e) point toward the axis. 13. In a simple anticline, all rock layers a) dip away from the axis, b) are horizontal, c) dip toward the axis, d) are downwarped, e) are faulted. 14. In a simple anticline, the oldest rock layers occur a) on the flanks of the fold, b) near the axis of the fold, c) where the axis plunges, d) anticlines contain only young rocks, e) none of these. 15. The San Andreas Fault in California is a) a strike-slip fault, b) a transform plate boundary, c) a right-lateral strike slip fault, d) a fault that generates many earthquakes, e) all of these.
16. The angle of inclination formed by a rock layer and the Earth's surface is a) the dip of the layer, b) the azimuth of the layer, c) the strike of the layer, d) the orientation of the layer, e) the line of the layer. 17. An anticline is a) a downwarped fold, b) an upwarped fold, c) I don't know what an anticline is. 18. A syncline is a) a downwarped fold, b) an upwarped fold, c) I don't know what an anticline is. 19. Anticlines and Synclines can be observed in Arkansas. a) true, b) false, c) maybe, d) I don't know, e) did we cover this in class? 20. Faults characterized by vertical displacement are known as a) left-lateral strike slip faults, b) right lateral strike slip faults, c) strike slip faults, d) dip slip faults, e) none of these. 21. Faults characterized by horizontal displacement are known as a) normal faults, b) reverse faults, c) strike slip faults, d) dip slip faults, e) none of these. 22. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an anticline? a) youngest rocks on the flanks, b) oldest rocks near the axis, c) layers dip toward the axis, d) upwarped rock layers, e) all of these are features of an anticline. 23. Which of the following is a feature of a syncline? a) youngest rocks on the flanks, b) oldest rocks near the axis, c) layers dip toward the axis, d) upwarped rock layers, e) all of these are features of an anticline. 24. The Fayetteville Fault on the corner of Dickson Street and Arkansas Avenue is a) a normal fault, b) a reverse fault, c) an anticline , d) a synclines, e) none of these. 25. In central Arkansas, there are a) anticlines, b) synclines, c) plunging anticlines, d) plunging synclines, e) all of these.
26. This picture shows a fence offset by a fault. This is an example of a) a normal fault, b) a reverse fault, c) a right-lateral strike slip fault, d) a left-lateral strike slip fault, e) my fault. 27. The displacement on this fault is a) north-south, b) east-west, c) up-down, d) over-under, e) cannot determine without additional information. 28. a) Fill in letter "A" on your answer sheet, b) if you don't fill in "A", you won't get credit for #28, c) so fill in letter "A" d) no, really, fill in "A", e) you can fill in a letter other than "A" if you wish, but it
will be the wrong answer!
29. If the oldest rocks are near the axis of the structure on the right, it is a) a syncline, b) an anticline, c) a plunging syncline, d) a plunging anticline, e) none of these. 30. If the youngest rocks are near the axis of this structure, it is a) an anticline, b) a plunging syncline, c) an anticline, d) a plunging anticline, e) none of these. 31. If this is a syncline, a) it plunges toward the top, b) it plunges toward the bottom, c) it does not plunge, d) none of these. 32. If this is an anticline, a) it plunges toward the bottom, b) it plunges toward the top, c) it does not plunge, d) none of these. 33. If this is an anticline, a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the layers dip away from the axis, c) the layers do not dip, d) the layers are upside down, e) none of these. 34. If this is a syncline, a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the layers dip away from the axis, c) the layers do not dip, d) the layers are upside down, e) none of these. 35. This is a syncline. a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the youngest rocks are near the axis, c) the oldest rocks are on the flanks, d) it plunges to the top, e) all of these. 36. This is an anticline. a) the layers dip toward the axis, b) the youngest rocks are near the axis, c) the oldest rocks are on the flanks, d) it plunges to the bottom, e) none of these.
EXAM V WITH ANSWERS - SPRING 2002 1. Geologists have recently determined the oldest rock on Earth to be about a) 4.4 billion years, b) 44 billion years, c) 440 million years, d) 4.4 million years, e) 3.8 billion years. 2. Which of the following is not a principle used in relative dating? a) the Principle of Superposition, b) the Principle of Original Horizontality, c) the Principle of Faunal Succession, d) the Principle of Cross-Cutting Relationships, e) The Theory of Evolution.
3. Charles Darwin thought the Principle of Faunal Succession worked because a) organisms had evolved through time, b) God had placed the organisms in their proper order in the rocks , c) it was a lucky coincidence, d) everyone else thought it worked, too, e) William Smith said so. 4. The first geologist to suggest that Earth was very ancient was a) Charles Darwin, b) William Smith, c) Archbishop Ussher, d) James Hutton, e) Thomas Huxley. 5. Eons are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of millions of years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these. 6. Epochs are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of millions of years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these. 7. Periods are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of millions of years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these. 8. Eras are a) millions of years long, b) tens of millions of years long, c) hundreds of millions of years long, d) billions of years long, e) none of these. 9. The oldest geological evidence of life on Earth is a) 545 million years old, b) 3.8 billion years old, c) 6,000 years old, d) 2 billion years old, e) 8 billion years old. 10. The oldest known human fossils are a) 6,000 years old, b) 600,000 years old, c) 4 billion years old, d) 4 million years old, e) have never been found. 11. Measurement of radioactive elements in rocks a) provides the relative age of the rock, b) is no longer feasible because of contamination due to nuclear testing, c) provides the absolute age of the rock, d) never works because rocks contain only trace quantities of radioactivity, e) none of these. 12. What is the half-life of a radioactive element? a) the time required for one-half of a given quantity of the element to decay to its daughter element, b) the time required for all of the radioactive element to decay to its daughter element, c) half of the time required for a given quantity of the element to decay to its daughter element, d) the time required for the radioactive element to decay half of the time, e) if you observe a radioactive element, half the time it decays, half the time it doesn't. 13. Sometime in the geologic past, a rock formed which contained 16 grams of a radioactive element. Presently, only 2 grams of that element remain. The other 14 grams have decayed to the daughter element. How many half-lives of the original element have ed since the rock formed? a) 5, b) 4, c) 3, d) 2, e) 1.
14. Suppose the radioactive element above has a half-life of 5 million years. How old is the rock? a) half as old as a rock that contains 32 grams of the radioactive element, b) 2.5 million years, c) 1 million years, d) 20 million years, e) 15 million years 15. Plants introduced oxygen into Earth's atmosphere a) 4.5 billion years ago, b) 3.8 billion years ago, c) 2 billion years ago, d) 440 million years ago, e) 66 million years ago. 16. Geologically, which came first: a) the "Age of Mammals", b) dinosaur extinction. 17. Plants first colonized land a) about 2 billion years ago, b) about 3.8 billion years ago, c) about 440 million years ago, d) about 245 million years ago. 18. What percentage of Earth's history had elapsed before plants colonized land? a) 90%, b) 10%, c) 50%, d) 25%, e) 5%. 19. Approximately what percentage of Earth's history elapsed before the first humans walked? a) 90%, b) 95%, c) 97.5%, d) 99%, e) 99.9% 20. Unconformities in the geologic record represent a) gaps in the geologic record, b) an interval when no sediment was deposited, c) an interval where erosion removed a portion of the geologic record, d) an interval of mountain building, e) all of these. 21. How much time can be represented by unconformities? a) a few years, b) thousands of years, c) millions of years, d) billions of years, e) all of these are possible. 22. Relative dating methods are used to determine a) the age in years of a geologic event, b) the chronological sequence of geological events, c) the age in millions of years of a geological event, d) the age in billions of years of a geological event, e) none of these. 23. Which of the following phenomena will affect the half-life of a radioactive element? a) high temperatures deep within Earth, b) high pressures deep within the Earth, c) changes in climate, d) increase in cosmic rays in Earth's atmosphere, e) none of these affect the half-life - it is constant. 24. The Principle of Faunal Succession states that a) fossils preserved in rock layers are less complex in older rocks, b) the Theory of Evolution is proven by the succession of fossils observed in rocks, c) the fossil record of life proves that life has succeeded on Earth, d) it is unlikely that life could have succeeded on other planets, e) none of these. 25. The Principle of Faunal Succession a) was first stated by Charles Darwin, b) was developed for the first time in Darwin's "Origin of Species", c) was outlined prior to Darwin's hypothesis of Evolution, d) has been disproved by modern geological research, e) none of these.
26. What percentage of Earth history do some geologists estimate is actually preserved by the sedimentary rock record? a) 90%, b) 50%, c) 25%, d) 10%, e) 5%. 27. With respect to the question above, what is the remainder of Earth history composed of? a) unconformities, b) igneous rocks, c) metamorphic rocks, d) magma, e) none of these. 28. Aten asteroids are those a) which will not strike Earth, b) whose orbits have diameters smaller than Earth's and which cross our path, c) whose orbits have diameters greater than Earth's and which cross our path, d) the largest asteroids in our solar system, e) the smallest asteroids in our solar system. 29. Apollo asteroids are those a) which will not strike Earth, b) whose orbits have diameters smaller than Earth's and which cross our path, c) whose orbits have diameters greater than Earth's and which cross our path, d) the largest asteroids in our solar system, e) the smallest asteroids in our solar system. 30. Asteroids and other space debris in the vicinity of Earth are called a) Trouble, b) Thunder Stones, c) Near Earth Objects, d) Magic Bullets, e) none of these. 31. The minimum diameter asteroid which can cause a world-wide catastrophe is believed to be a) 1-2 kilometers, b) 60-70 meters, c) two tons, d) about the size of Ozark Hall, e) none of these. 32. The energy released from an asteroid impact causing a global catastrophe must be at least a) 100 megatons of TNT, b) 1,000 megatons of TNT, c) 10,000 megatons of TNT, d) 100,000 megatons of TNT, e) 1 million megatons of TNT. 33. Compared to being killed by a tornado, you are a) 100 times more likely to be killed by an asteroid, b) 20 times more likely to be killed by an asteroid, c) 1 million times more likely to be killed by an asteroid, d) 1000 times more likely to be killed by an asteroid, e) much more likely to be killed by a tornado than an asteroid. 34. Since 1995, how many asteroids have astronomers identified? a) fewer the two dozen, b) about 170, c) 1,000, d) 10,000, e) over 37,000. 35. True or False: Humans have never witnessed an impact of a comet or asteroid with Earth. a) True, b) False, c) maybe, d) it depends on how you look at it, e) Humans have never seen this, but we do see craters around the world. 36. True or False: An asteroid or comet struck a remote area of Siberia in 1908. a) True, b) False, c) maybe, d) it depends on how you look at it, e) this event has been proven to be a hoax.
37. The geologist highlighted in the one of the videos on asteroid impacts was a) James Hutton, b) Stephen Boss, c) Alfred Wegener, d) Archbishop Ussher, e) Eugene Shoemaker. 38. The extraterrestrial object responsible for the extinction of dinosaurs struck Earth a) in northern Canada, b) in Italy, c) in Mexico, d) in Siberia, e) in Iceland. 39. The asteroid impact responsible for dinosaur extinction occurred approximately a) 66 million years ago, b) 1 billion years ago, c) 4 thousand years ago, d) 200 million years ago, e) never happened. Q40.During which era did the initial opening of the present-day Atlantic Ocean most likely occur? 1. Cenozoic 2. Mesozoic 3. Paleozoic 4. Late Proterozoic Q 41.The absolute age of a rock is the approximate number of years ago that the rock formed. The absolute age of an igneous rock can best be determined by 5. comparing the amounts of decayed and undecayed radioactive isotopes in the rock 6. comparing the sizes of the crystals found in the upper and lower parts of the rock 7. examining the rock’s relative position in a rock outcrop 8. examining the environment in which the rock is found 9. Q42.In which type of environment were the sediments that formed these sedimentary rock layers most likely deposited? 1 glacial 2 mountainous 3 marine 4 terrestrial plateau Q43.sedimentary rock layers at the three locations can be most accurately correlated by comparing the thickness of the sedimentary rock layers 2 foliation bands in the metamorphic basement rocks 1
3 fossils in the sedimentary rocks 4 minerals in the igneous rocks Q44 Which feature is represented by the symbol along the edges of the dike and sills? 1 metamorphic rock 2 an unconformity 3 a glacial moraine 4 index fossils Q45 Which radioactive isotope is most useful for determining the age of mastodont bones found in late Pleistocene sediments? 1 uranium-238 2 carbon-14 3 potassium-40 4 rubidium-87 Q46 What does the presence of the fossils suggest about the Hamilton area during the Devonian? 2 2 3 4
It had a terrestrial environment sometime between 443 and 418 million years ago. It had a terrestrial environment sometime between 418 and 362 million years ago. It had a marine environment sometime between 443 and 418 million years ago. It had a marine environment sometime between 418 and 362 million years ago.
Multiple Choice Questions Introduction to Geology Chapter 1 Introduction to the Earth
Which of the following statements regarding the scientific methods is true? A hypothesis must be agreed upon by more than one scientist 100
A theory is a hypothesis that has withstood many 100
scientifi c tests A theory is proven to be true, and therefore may not be 100
discarded A hypothesis cannot predict the outcome of scientific 100
experiments
1
According to the principle of uniformatarianism, geologic processes we observe today have operated in the past
100
geologic process in the past operated at the same rate as they do today 100
all of the planets formed from a uniform solar nebula 100
early Earth was covered by a uniform magma ocean 100
2
Approximately how long ago did the Big Bang take place? 10-15 thousand years ago
100
10-15 million years ago 100
100-150 million years ago 100
10-15 billion years ago 100
3
Under intense pressure and high temperature, hydrogen atoms combine to form helium. This process is called: nuclear fusion
100
nuclear fission 100
metamorphism 100
convection 100
4
Referring to the diagram what factor(s) are responsible for path C? melting
100
crystallization 100
heat and pressure 100
burial and lithification 100
5
What are the two most abundant elements in nebula (gas clouds) in the universe? nitrogen and oxygen
100
oxygen and silicon 100
hydrogen and helium 100
iron and nickel 100
6
What are the two most abundant elements in nebula (gas clouds) in the universe? nitrogen and oxygen
100
oxygen and silicon 100
hydrogen and helium 100
iron and nickel 100
7
The process by which an originally homogeneous Earth developed a dense core and a light crust is called: metamorphism
100
differentiation 100
accretion 100
compression 100
8
The heat that caused melting in the Earth's early history was supplied from which of the following events or causes? volcanic activity and radioactivity
100
solar heating and volcanic activity 100
a large impact event and radioactivity 100
a large impact event and solar heating 100
9
How thick is the crust of the Earth? about 4 miles
100
about 4 km 100
about 40 km 100
about 400 km 100
10 The layer that separates crust from core is the?
magma layer 100
lithosphere 100
mantle 100
continent 100
11 What drives the Earth's internal heat engine? radioactivity 100
solar energy 100
volcanoes 100
ocean tides 100
12 In general, igneous rocks: form at relatively high temperatures 100
form by crystallization of solids from a liquid 100
form at high and low pressures 100
all of the above 100
13 Minerals: can form by life-processes -- organic 100
are crystalline solids 100
have a unique chemical composition 100
can be any state (solid, liquid, or gas) as long as that state occurs naturally 100
14 Metamorphic rocks are changed rocks. Which of the following rock types could be the "parent" of a metamorphic rock? sedimentary 100
igneous 100
metamorphic 100
all of the above 100
15 _______involves transfer of heat by the physical movement of the material: conduction 100
convection 100
metamorphism 100
radiation 100
16 __________is called the "father" of geology. John Butler 100
Art Smith 100
James Hutton 100
Alfred Wegner 100
17 New seafloor is created at a ____________? deep-sea trench 100
mid-ocean ridge 100
subduction zone 100
transform fault 100
18 The descent of oceanic lithosphere into the mantle is the process of _______? accretion 100
subduction 100
divergence zone 100
contraction fault 100
19 Which of the following features is not associated with a convergent plate boundary? a mid-ocean ridge 100
earthquakes 100
a deep-sea trench zone 100
volcanic activity 100
20 The greatest threat to our environment is ___________? volcanoes 100
earthquakes 100
humans 100
bacteria 100
21 Earth materials always trace the complete rock cycle from sediment through igneous rocks. True 100
False 100
22 The crust and lithosphere are synonymous. True 100
False 100
23 The mantle and asthenosphere are synonymous. True 100
False 100
24 Because we rarely witness dramatic changes in the Earth, we can conclude that the Earth is not changing very much. True 100
False 100
25 The motions of the three types of plate boundaries would be described as divergent, convergent, and static.
True 100
False 100
26 The crust of the Earth is static and stable. True 100
False 100
27 Features useful in defining plate boundaries include all except: shorelines between continents and oceans 100
distribution of volcanoes 100
distribution of earthquakes 100
distribution of mountain ranges 100
all are correct 100
28 The age of the Earth is currently thought to be about 6,000 years old 100
about 6 billion years old 100
about 4,500,000,000 years old 100
29 The contribution made to geology by James Hutton was: the recognition that processes still active today could produce almost any 100
known rock type. the description of plausible processes for converting one rock type to 100
another. a change in outlook on Earth processes from a catastrophic to a 100
uniformitarian one. all of the above 100
none of the above 100
30 One of geology's greatest contributions to human thought is: the realization that the world is round 100
the realization that the sun not the Earth is the center of the solar system 100
the recognition of the long span of time involved in Earth history 100
the recognition that the Earth is the center of the solar system 100
31 Evidence of uniformitarian change includes: glacial deposits in areas where no glaciers are presently found. 100
fossils of marine animals found at high elevation 100
continents covered by sediments deposited in an ocean 100
wide canyons cut by small streams 100
all of the above 100
none of the above 100
32 Living organisms have been on Earth for ______ of Earth's history? less than 1% 100
about 20% 100
about 50% 100
about 80% 100
33 Humans have been on Earth for _________ of Earth;s history? less than 1% 100
about 20% 100
about 50% 100
about 80% 100
34 What caused dust and condensing material to accrete into planetesimals? heating of gases 100
gravitational attraction and collisions 100
nuclear fusion 100
rotation of the proto-sun 100
35 Which of the following is not one of the four inner planets? Mars 100
Earth 100
Neptune 100
Mars 100
36 The outer planets are composed mostly of ?
rocks and ice 100
oxygen and nitrogen 100
hydrogen and helium 100
helium and krypton 100
37 The moon is ? older than the sun 100
older than most meteorites 100
older than the Earth 100
none of these 100
38 The name of the layer of the Earth that separates the crust from the core is the ___? magma 100
lithosphere 100
asthenosphere 100
mantle 100
39 What powers the Earth's internal heat engine?
radioactivity 100
solar energy 100
volcanoes 100
ocean tides 100
40 The Earth's external heat engine is not responsible for which of the following: climate 100
erosion 100
tides 100
winds 100
41 Oxygen built up in the Earth's atmosphere because: the oceans separated from the crust 100
rocks weathered and released their oxygen 100
algae and other organisms employed photosynthesis 100
oxygen settled on Earth from planets further from the sun 100
42 Which of the planets is not geologically active? Mars 100
Mercury 100
Venus 100
Earth 100
43 When did geologists develop the theory of plate tectonics
in the mid 1800s 100
in the early 1900s 100
in the 1950s 100
in the 1960s 100
44 The lithosphere is approximately ______ kilometers thick. 1-2 100
5-10 100
50-100 100
100-200 100
45 The asthenosphere is _________. cool and strong 100
cool and weak 100
hot and strong 100
hot and weak 100
46 The Earth's lithosphere is broken into approximately ______ large, rigid plates. 2 100
12 100
50 100
100 100
47 A __________ plate boundary is illustrated in the figure show above. transform fault 100
divergent 100
convergent - subduction 100
convergent - continent/continent collision 100
48 Which of the following statements about convection is true? heat is transferred from hot material to cool material without inducing a 100
flow. cool material flows upward and displaces hot material 100
hot material flows upward and displaces cool material 100
random circulation occurs 100
49 Approximately how fast does an Earth lithospheric plate move?
several centimeters per year 100
several centimeters per day 100
several centimeters per hour 100
several centimeters per second 100
50 Which of the following is not a type of plate boundary? convergent 100
divergent 100
transform fault 100
all of these are plate boundaries 100
51 New seafloor is created at a ________. deep sea trench 100
mid-ocean ridge 100
subduction zone 100
transform fault 100
52 The descent of oceanic lithosphere into the mantle is the process of ______. subduction 100
accretion 100
divergence 100
contraction 100
53 Approximately how deep (below sea level) are deep-sea trenches? 1 km 100
10 km 100
100 km 100
1000 km 100
54 Which of the following features is not associated with a transform plate boundary? a mid-ocean ridge 100
earthquakes 100
a deep sea-trench 100
volcanic activity 100
55 Volcanism is associated with which of the following types of plate boundaries? convergent plate boundaries 100
divergent plate boundaries 100
transform fault plate boundaries 100
divergent and convergent plate boundaries 100
56 The Andes Mountains of South America are a result of which type of plate boundary? convergent 100
divergent 100
transform 100
they are not related to a plate boundary 100
57 Mount St. Helen's. a part of the Cascade Range of volcanoes, result from the subduction of which plate? Pacific 100
Cocos 100
Juan de Fuca 100
North American 100
58 What is the name of the large supercontinent that existed 200 million years ago when all of the continents were together? San Andreas 100
2 Andian
3 Indian
4 pangea
100
59 Why is our vulnerability to natural disasters growing? because the frequency of volcanic eruptions is increasing 100
because the human population is increasing 100
because the number of earthquakes each year is increasing 100
because the number of floods each year is increasing 100
60 The theory of plate tectonics was not initially widely accepted because ______..
land bridges would have blocked plate movement 100
rocks of the Earth's crust were considered too stiff for continents to move 100
through them fossils on South America and Africa did not match 100
ocean floor mapping showed that older rocks occur away from mid-ocean 100
ridges 61 Referring to the diagram above, path A is _______ cooling and crystallization 100
burial and lithification 100
weathering and deposition 100
cooling and uplift 100
62 Referring to the diagram above, path B is _______ uplift, weathering and erosion, deposition 100
deposition, heat and pressure, weathering 100
melting, crystallization, heat and pressure 100
deposition, lithification and crystallization 100
63 Referring to the diagram what factor(s) are responsible for path C? melting 100
crystallization 100
heat and pressure 100
burial and lithification 100
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